"Naše dítě bolí zuby."

Translation:Our child has a toothache.

November 5, 2017

This discussion is locked.


"Our child’s teeth hurt" - is this bad English, yet acceptable in a course teaching Czech, or a heresy not to be accepted anywhere? :P


"Our child's teeth hurt" is perfectly fine English, but I just got busted for it! :-(


To what word does "boli" refer to? Is it the teeth that hurt, or does the child has a pain at the teeth? For example: "My theeth hurt" "bolim zuby", or is it "Moje zuby boli". I hope you get the idea what i'm actually asking.


It is zuby who is the subject here and the dítě is the object. So it would be "Bolí mě zuby." and certainly not *"Já bolím zuby.".


If “zuby” is the subject, then wouldn’t “dítě” be genitive (The teeth of our child...”) requiring “našeho” to be the possessive pronoun?


No, it is not "zuby našeho dítěte" "the teeth of our child". It is a special syntax where the person "whom" the body part aches is in accusative. Compare with German dative "Es tut mir weh."


OK...thanks. I’ll try to remember.


You "just" added upon "Bonehead...""Our child's teeth hurt" percetly fine English, what is excactly the same as "zuby našeho ditěte bolí." Sorry, seems a little bit strange. Thx

Added after following comment:

"Our child's teeth hurt" is perfectly fine English, but I just got busted for it! :-(

7 REPLYREPORTGIVE LINGOT•4 YEARS AGO https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu VladaFuMODPLUS 2012101098 just added


My comment has nothing to do with accepting anything. It explained the syntax and the cases. If you think something should be accepted and it wasn't, just report it.


First-language English speakers would probably translate this as 'Our child has toothache', thus the indefinite article 'a' is somewhat superfluous, don't you think?


I am native AmE. I would always say "A toothache." It would not even occur to me to leave out "a." It is possible the BrE usage is different and I am not familiar with it. If you are a native BrE speaker, and you can point the team to a reference supporting your suggestion, I'm sure it would be appreciated.


I'm not sure where to look for a reference, but as a native British English speaker (Northern England) I would instinctively omit the indefinite article for toothache and earache. In contrast, I would almost always include it for "a headache". Possibly this is because toothache and earache are pretty self-defining, but a headache is more variable in character? Stomach ache (or tummy ache if dealing with a child) are much more variable. I could imagine asking a child "Do you have (a) tummy ache?" in either form, but on a follow-up question I would almost certainly omit the a: "Do you still have tummy ache?" because the ache has already been determined.

My first post here in 155 days of very enjoyable study - many thanks for all the team's hard work.

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