"Lose to know better how to win afterwards."
Translation:Perdre pour mieux savoir gagner ensuite.
I am confused about the use of the infinitive "perdre" here. I understand the sentence as an imperative, i.e. someone advising me to lose a game so that in the future I'll know how to win. So I began the sentence with "Perdez pour mieux savoir . . ." DL accepted it (though I lost a heart, as others in this discussion did, for including "comment"), but I am still wondering why the preferred translation starts with "perdre." What's the difference between the two? Is the infinitive used to express a general principle or maxim?
Exactly, some maxims or adverbs or even instructions for use and recipes are given in infinitive rather than imperative.
For 1st group verbs, it does not matter in speech, since the sound is the same (manger/mangez), but overall, the infinitive is perceived as less "intrusive" than a mere imperative in writing anyway.