"I drink that."
Translation:Já to piji.
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My answer was "Já piju to." The given answer was "Já piju tamto," and the reason mine was wrong was "You used the wrong word," with "tamto" underlined. I don't believe that "tamto" has been introduced yet, and it wasn't one of the hover-over choices -- neither is it the word used in the meaning given above. So shouldn't the answer I gave be correct?
I grew up with the czech language but over the years it got really bad because i only speak it once or two times in a year so i use duolingo to improve my czech. I just want to say that I'm very sure that it is not: Já to piji. It's Já to piju. 'Piji' is very wrong if you use it it in that sentence. I also never heard a czech person say piji in any sentence but then again my czech isn't the best so maybe I'm wrong. I even searched it up just to be sure and it is really not piji (in that particular sentence). It's piju
Ja to piju.
Yes okay piji is correct but i have never heard a czech person say the sentence 'ja to piji'. Nobody says it like that. Everybody says "Ja to piju". So that's why I thought it was incorrect. I was talking about that specific sentence. And my mother language is czech it is just not that great because I don't live there anymore. I can still hear it when something doesn't sound right. But thank you I didn't know that piji was the formal form
One thing you have to learn about Czech is the existence of clitics - short unstressed words and we put in the second syntactical position in the sentence.
If we omit the personal pronoun, we get "Piju to", with "to" second. If we include "já", we have to keep "to" second, hence "Já to piju". Same if we use another word to start the sentence: "Dnes to piju" (I drink it today).