"Mám svého psa."

Translation:I have my dog.

November 19, 2017

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I believe that this could also be translated as I have 'my own" dog.

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No. Translate for sentence "I have my own dog." is "Mám svého vlastního psa."


Both "Mám svého psa" and "Mám svého vlastního psa" mean "I have my (own) dog"; in this case "vlastní" only emphasizes that the dog is really your own. However, the pronoun "svůj" by itself already means "one's own" (more specifically, it refers to possession by the subject of the sentence), and it can be used to clear up some ambiguities (as a side note, "svůj" is analogous to "sin" in Swedish). For example:

Irena ztratila její knihu = Irena lost her (another person's) book

Irena ztratila svoji knihu. = Irena lost her own book

Notice that, in English, the sentence "Irena lost her book" is ambiguous (we don't know whose book Irena lost), but the two sentences above (in Czech) aren't.


Why is it "psa" and not pes?


The word "pes" is nominative; the word "psa" is accusative, which you need here because it is the direct object of the verb.


Because of the Accusative case


Also in what context would one use "sveho" vs muj/moje


Read the other comments on this page. Pedro_42 explains it.


So I wrote "I have their dog", which is noted to be wrong. But if I tap svého in the sentence, it shows "my, theirs, his" as a translation?


The word "svého" always refers back to the subject of the sentence. For example, if the subject is "he", then "svého" will mean "his". But here the subject is "I', so here "svého" means "my".

Another way to look at it is to think of "svého" as meaning "own": He has (his) own dog, I have (my) own dog, etc.


you should be moderator! very good explanations you give to us.. thanks

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