"He had offered me a beer."
Translation:Il m'avait proposé une bière.
I tried 'Ils m'avaient proposé une bière' in a 'Write what you hear' exercise. Not accepted. The two sound the same to me, and the given context did not provide enough information to eliminate either version.
This one said I have a typo with "Il m'avait proposée une bière." Am I mistaken that proposé should agree with the gender of the speaker (the m') in this scenario?
Just to be exhaustive, "m'" is the indirect object of "avait proposé" = à + je (to me).
Some verbs require agreement not with the subject of the sentence, but with the direct object. The majority of French verbs are conjugated with avoir in the compound tenses and do not agree with their subjects. However, avoir verbs require agreement with their direct objects or direct object pronouns when these precede the verb. (There is no agreement when the direct object follows the verb or with an indirect object.)
In the given sentence, Il is the subject ("who offers?" "he offers"). Note that the direct object, une bière follows the verb, therefore no agreement is required.
Une bière ? Il me l'avait proposée. Here la refers to une bière and, in this sentence, precedes the verb so requires agreement.
Why imparfait here? To me this feels more like a one-time, completed event, rather than a repeated or ongoing event. But clearly I am mistaken (yet again). Help, please?
The speaker is telling someone about something that had happened (prior to some other past action). Since it refers to a previous past action, the pluperfect is used, i.e., he had offered, not "he has offered". Otherwise, the pluperfect works just like Passé composé, except that it uses the imperfect conjugation of the auxiliary verb. Does that help?
A general comment, I really don 't understand the points system when you test out, this exercise is really difficult yet few poi ts. Others are easy but get over 300 points? Any idea how that works?