"There is nobody to lead us."

Translation: Nemá nás kdo vést.

[ion1122]

Well, I would translate the Czech above as "We have nobody to lead us" and the English above as "Není nás kdo vést."

Are those both correct?

[VikiNeznam]

No, Není nás kdo vést is incorrect but I mean correct for Czech people is Nemáme nikoho kdo by nás vedl I am from Czech

[Filomena.Prvni]

...or "Není nikdo, kdo by nás vedl."

[ortocymen]

No, "Není nás kdo vést vést" is not correct. However you could use more advanced construction as:
"Není tu nikdo, kdo by nás vedl" literally "There is nobody who would lead us."

[svrsheque]

i added the "tu" fill-in. thanks for commenting.

[Gavin753673]

What is the logic behind this. Why use nema? I'm confused.

[VladaFu]

See the other direction https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/25029292

[Artashes98]

I understand "Nemáme nikoho kdo by nás vedl." and "Není nikdo, kdo by nás vedl."
But I don't understand "Nemá nás kdo vést." Would a native Czech speaker please explain? Thank you.

[VladaFu]

Did you read the link I gave to Gavin? If yes, be specific, so that I do not repeat what is not clear anyway.

[Artashes98]

Yes, the only relevant thing there was this:
"Nemá nás kdo vést. - here the unknown non-existing person is the subject, so (ni)kdo for the subject".
Why is it used in such a way, with the presumptive subject in singular? Is it typical? If yes, can you give a couple of other, widely-used examples?

[svrsheque]

here is a relevant reference if you want to get into the mechanics of it. "why" the language does that, for that you may be on your own.

[Artashes98]

Thank you for the reference. It seems that even the linguist is not quite comfortable with such usage:

"There is a time such that it can rain then.’ This case is bad in Czech too, but there still are other potential cases to warrant the other conclusion (arguing for Raising rather than Control)
Je/není kdy pršet.
?Má/nemá už kam pršet. - There is/isn’t already place that could take rain."

[svrsheque]

consider reading section 5.2. and the "grammatical" example

• Tady (to) nemá (to) kdo uklidit.

(obviously at most one "to" would apply.)

but perhaps you refuse the existence of this structure. no one can force you to accept it, or us to pretend it does not exist.

for various examples, you could search books or news for NEMÁ X KDO, with X being a personal pronoun or even a pronoun pair, like NEMÁ JE KDO, NEMÁ MU TO KDO...

[Dietmar242464]

I seems weird to me that "nás" comes before "kdo". Feels more logical the other way round.

[VladaFu]

Not in Czech. Nás is an inconstant clitic https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/31466920