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  5. "There is nobody to lead us."

"There is nobody to lead us."

Translation:Nemá nás kdo vést.

November 25, 2017

15 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ion1122

Well, I would translate the Czech above as "We have nobody to lead us" and the English above as "Není nás kdo vést."

Are those both correct?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VikiNeznam

No, Není nás kdo vést is incorrect but I mean correct for Czech people is Nemáme nikoho kdo by nás vedl I am from Czech


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Filomena.Prvni

...or "Není nikdo, kdo by nás vedl."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ortocymen

No, "Není nás kdo vést vést" is not correct. However you could use more advanced construction as: "Není tu nikdo, kdo by nás vedl" literally "There is nobody who would lead us."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/svrsheque

i added the "tu" fill-in. thanks for commenting.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Gavin753673

What is the logic behind this. Why use nema? I'm confused.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Artashes98

I understand "Nemáme nikoho kdo by nás vedl." and "Není nikdo, kdo by nás vedl." But I don't understand "Nemá nás kdo vést." Would a native Czech speaker please explain? Thank you.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

Did you read the link I gave to Gavin? If yes, be specific, so that I do not repeat what is not clear anyway.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Artashes98

Yes, the only relevant thing there was this: "Nemá nás kdo vést. - here the unknown non-existing person is the subject, so (ni)kdo for the subject". Why is it used in such a way, with the presumptive subject in singular? Is it typical? If yes, can you give a couple of other, widely-used examples?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/svrsheque

here is a relevant reference if you want to get into the mechanics of it. "why" the language does that, for that you may be on your own.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Artashes98

Thank you for the reference. It seems that even the linguist is not quite comfortable with such usage:

"There is a time such that it can rain then.’ This case is bad in Czech too, but there still are other potential cases to warrant the other conclusion (arguing for Raising rather than Control) Je/není kdy pršet. ?Má/nemá už kam pršet. - There is/isn’t already place that could take rain."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/svrsheque

consider reading section 5.2. and the "grammatical" example

  • Tady (to) nemá (to) kdo uklidit.

(obviously at most one "to" would apply.)

but perhaps you refuse the existence of this structure. no one can force you to accept it, or us to pretend it does not exist.

for various examples, you could search books or news for NEMÁ X KDO, with X being a personal pronoun or even a pronoun pair, like NEMÁ JE KDO, NEMÁ MU TO KDO...


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dietmar242464

I seems weird to me that "nás" comes before "kdo". Feels more logical the other way round.

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