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  5. "Me quedaré una noche."

"Me quedaré una noche."

Translation:I will stay one night.

April 9, 2014



I am 41 years old and English with two good businesses and never studied english at school. (Not paying attention, bad school etc). I must say that even though i am really struggling to understand the grammer (i know verb and noun) i think you guys are really smart and inspiring.


was i completely wrong with "i will have one night left" ?


That would be: A mí me quedará una noche.


I am sure that is right, but I do not understand it. "A mí " seems totally redundant when the reflexive "me" already states who or what it refers to.


Yes, a mí is redundant, but I used it so annaannaannaan (did I get that right?) would notice that in that sentence I was no longer the subject, and just so you know, that me is an indirect object.


aha. Thanks! I had not even noticed the é to á shift.


Not indirect object. Quedarse is reflexive. 201508


I was talking about my sentence.


thanks! i see that now!


No. I agree with that as a possible translation.


Why isn't it "Yo quedara una noche"


because to stay is a reflexive verb in spanish, and the verb ending for the yo form in the future tense is é. hence it would be me quedaré una noche


In english staying for the night implies that the number is one and not many.


Both "one night" and "a night" are accepted. "the night" is singular, but it implies a particular night. Here they are not talking about a specific night but any random singular night.

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Ok what exactly is a reflexive verb? Compared other verbs? I know action verbs ... camina, salta, corre. Abstract verbs, como pensar, sentir. What is reflexive???


I think the problem is that normally people tend to mix the terms reflexive verb and pronominal verb. Reflexive verbs are the ones that use a reflexive pronoun to reflect the action of the verb back to the subject, basically they're verbs that turn the subject into the object of the sentence. Example:

  • Yo lo escondí aquí (I hid it here).
  • Yo me escondí aquí (I hid here).

In the first example the subject (I / yo) is hiding something (it / lo), the subject and the object are different things, therefore the verb is not reflexive (esconder). In the second sentence the subject (I / yo) is hiding himself (me), turning the subject of the sentence into the object, therefore the verb is reflexive (esconderse). In English the verb to hide is not reflexive, that's why you don't normally say "I hid myself".

Pronominal verbs are the ones that need a pronoun to work, adding this pronoun can change the meaning or verbal regency (transitive, intransitive) of a verb, similar to an English phrasal verb, the pronoun is the same one used for reflexive verbs (so confusing). For instance, the verb "sentir" is transitive, but its pronominal form, "sentirse", is intransitive. Example:

  • No siento las piernas (I can't feel my legs).
  • Nos sentimos bien (We feel fine).

In the first example there's a direct object (las piernas), the second sentence doesn't have a direct object, but an adverb (bien). Another example would be the verb encontrar, which means to find (amongst other things), and its pronominal form encontrarse, which means to meet (amongst other things).

  • Ella encontró la dirección (She found the address)
  • Vamos a encontrarnos en el centro comercial (Let's meet at the mall).

There are other verbs that can be pronominal or not, because we Spanish speakers are used to adding pronouns to a lot of verbs when it's not really necessary. There's a lot more to this subject, but I really don't want to make this post longer.


Alezzzix - a really clear and insightful explanation. Very helpful and much appreciated. Thank you!


That's what they all say :P ;)


why is 'overnight' not correct??


It seems Spanish may have a better way to say "overnight". http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/overnight


Yes, also one night does not imply is that same day, is one random night (and only one)


I feel that "I will stay one night" is not as proper English as "I will stay FOR one night".


Both phrases are proper English.


Perhaps, but "I SHALL stay one night." is the most proper English.


I will stay one night is perfectly proper English.

"How long will you be here?"

"I will stay one night."


Why is I'll be staying one night wrong?


Because your sentence is "Estaré quedando una noche," not, "Me quedaré una noche."


Me estaré quedando una noche is grammatically correct, but it sounds a bit weird/unnatural to me, so maybe I'll be staying one night is not a bad translation.


Me estaré quedando una noche. And I don't think it's unnatural. Just different. It might involve doubt.


Can you drop the me and it be correct? Or replace the me with yo?


I don't believe so, because quedarse is reflexive. 201508


So is it alright to usw both the for and the for-less version in spanish ?


Why not "I will be there one night" ?


Why is noche feminine? It's not nocha and I've being told almost every word is feminine lately.


Noche is from the Latin "nox", which is feminine. http://latindictionary.wikidot.com/noun:nox


Often words that are not the gender that looks appropriate based on their spelling are that way because of the gender of the word they originated from. For instant a Latin word or the original word was longer and has been shorten, as many words are shortened with time.


Why not "I will be staying one night"?


In Portuguese... Me aquietarei uma noite. So easy for me :).


She puts the stress on the wrong syllable in the fast version...


Quedar is also for wearing clothes, right? Or what verb am i thinking


Un beso amor, beso amor No me cabe este dolor Solo un beso amor Quédate esta noche :)


yo ya se ablar espanol nadamas que cuando me aburro con el frances, me pongo a estudiar espanol. Otra cosa yo pense que iba a pasar el examen, pero la verdad espanol si tiene una gran diferencia al castellano. Castellano es parecido al espanol pero mas corriente... MAs ranchero

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