Translation:Could I have an alcohol-free beer please?
I have never seen someone write "pourrais-je avoir" - isn't it usually "pourrais-j'avoir" because of the two vowels? It's even pronounced as "pourrais-j'avoir" in the speech they provide. French speakers, what way do you usually write this out? (I'm a bilingual Fr Canadian here, so I'm really curious about the written form of this phrase, I haven't written in French in many years)
Because "pourrais-je" is pronounced as a single sound like "pour-rayjz" ( very roughly speaking - as you are French Canadian I am sure you know what I mean ☺).
However, I do know that It is never written as "pourrais-j'avoir" but, as my knowledge of spoken French is very limited, it may well be pronounced that way amongst friends.
All the same, Duolingo does not accept familiar "shortcuts" that affect grammatical structure which, as a foreigner, I appreciate. I want to learn grammatically correct French first - the rest can come later.
It depends whether you mean in English translation or in French?
In English we often say "Could I please have .... " but, in French, "s'il vous plaît? " always comes at the end.
btw That doesn't mean that Could I please have ... would be accepted by doulingo - I have never tried it - but I believe it should be.
In what way in English is it "wrong"? What an intriguing statement? Please, advise of this grammatical rule which has so obviously passed me by all these past years! It is the most usual way one would usually say please. "Please" does not have to be, and invariably it isn't, at the end of the sentence.