"zofie lost a husband in january" ......... vzhledem k tomu že v české větě není implicitně napsáno "svého", neměl by pak být uznatelný překlad kde se "her" nahradí členem?
Ne. To by v zivote rodily mluvci z pusy nevypustil. Je to stejne, jako byste rekl, ze Zofie prisla o 'nejakeho' manzela. Jako by jich mela nepocitane. Teoreticky by tam sel THE husband, ale to take nikdo nerekne. Anglictina nacpe privlastnovaci zajmeno kam to jen jde. Vyhne se tak nutnosti pouzit clen. Kdyz si pustite kladivko na nohu, tak je v cestine jasne, ze na svou. V Aj tam bezpochyby vrazite MY Foot. Pokud by v ceske vete mohlo by privlastneni a nezmeni se vyznam, byt to muze znit legracne, muzete se vsadit, ze tam v AJ bude. Zofie v lednu ztratila sveho manzela.
Don't understand all of this, but "Žofie lost a husband" is perfectly acceptable.
In your example, you say you hit your foot (I think). That is a different situation speechwise, because you can hit many things, even other people's feet, so (in English) you need to make it clear it's your foot. A better example would be "he lost his foot", which can also be "he lost a foot" and have the same meaning (unless for some reason it has been made clear beforehand that he collects feet or something and subsequently lost one :) ).
But never in any normal situation would you say "she lost the husband"
Sorry if I got your point of view completely wrong, I'm writing because "Žofie lost a husband in January" isn't accepted yet
In Czech, is the meaning of this phrase that her husband died? That's how I would understand it in English, because if the intention had been to say that he "went missing," the phrase would say instead "got lost" or "disappeared."