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  5. "Il mange un bonbon."

"Il mange un bonbon."

Translation:He is eating a piece of candy.

March 18, 2013



"a piece of candy" or just "candy" is used instead of "a candy", "one candy" might be acceptable, but "one piece" is used more often.


You're right. I can't think of any situation where I would say "He is eating a candy." The English translation should be either "He is eating a piece of candy." or "He is eating candy." Though I entered "He is eating a sweet." and I don't think I'd get funny looks from my friends for saying that, so I find that an acceptable translation.


yes, i agree. in english it is unusual to say "he is eating a candy". in fact in my whole life, i have never heard that an american english speaker use that wording.


In UK you'd almost never use the word candy. Its american not english. UK would say sweet


The UK version "sweet" is accepted although only one "best" sentence may be shown at the top of the page. Be aware that what you call American is also English. We differentiate by saying AmE or BrE.


Sweet/sweetie is common in the UK.

Duo accepted the latter for the previous sentence but not for this one....reported 12/5/18


I agree ..I believe ." He is eating candy ." is an appropriate translation ....and should be accepted .....


That would be "il mange du bonbon" where "du" is a partitive article referring to an undetermined amount of something. It is actually considered the plural of "un" but there is no real equivalent in English other than saying (some) candy. Other examples, il mange du poisson = he is eating fish, i.e., an undetermined amount of fish vs. il mange un poisson = he is eating a fish.


In American English, "eating a candy" is used if it is of known type - such as a piece from a box of chocolates - or individually wrapped.


So the issue here is "count noun" vs "mass noun"

A count noun is fine to refer to by sheer number. A tree, sixteen trees.

Mass nouns must have qualifiers. You wouldn't say "a rice". A grain of rice, a cup of rice, etc.

You're right, but thinking about how much more common count nouns seem to appear in French has helped ms immensely.


Lolly should be accepted!!


Definitely. That's what it's called in NZ and Aus. Candy is only US


I used "lolly" (9-Jan-2015) and it worked.


Candy (US) is dandy. Lolly or sweet is more english


"A candy"? I would rarely ever say that...


Yeah, you would say something like "a piece of candy" but at the time I did this part of my lessons, I hadn't learned to say "piece" so it wouldn't accept it.


bonbon is used in English but that answer wasn't accepted.


I just looked that up in the dictionary and you're right! Though I've never heard it used around me and would not have immediately known what they are talking about.


It's used, in UK at least, to mean a particular type of toffee sweet that is bite-sized and rolled in icing sugar, and is REALLY chewy. So without more context, you can't be sure it would be right. Duo's problem as always!


It is accepted now.


Are you le profeseur?


I am one of the moderators for the French-for-English speakers course.


Australians had a parti ular sweet called a bonbon It was another lolly


I wrote "Ils mangent un bonbon" and it accepted, but how do you differentiate Il and Ils?


You cannot. They both sound exactly the same.

/il mɑ̃ʒ œ̃ bɔ̃bɔ̃/


he is eating a lolly = he is eating a candy


And "lolly" and "sweet" are also accepted, as is "bonbon", "a piece of candy" and "a candy". Be aware that in Australia/NZ, a piece of candy is a lolly because that is a general term but it is not interchangeable with "lollipop" (une sucette).


"He eats a lolly" was rejected for me 20/3/18


i thought bonbon was a sort of choclate or something like that


He is having a candy isn't correct. Why?


The word 'have' meaning 'to eat' is informal, and so have and eat are not actually synonyms.


The French use the word "prendre" to mean "have" in the sense of "eat" or "consume" something. But if "manger" is used, we should translate it as "eat".


Why not he eats a chocolat?


Not all candy is made of chocolate, so at least in America, we don't generalize candy as such. And French already has a word for "chocolate" which is "le chocolat".


I entered "It eats a piece of candy" and got it wrong. What's wrong with this phrasing?

If I feed my dog a (non-chocolate) piece of candy, what sentence captures its action of eating the candy?


I'm English. I would never say I'm eating a piece of candy. You should allow for a 'sweet' here and a 'lolly' in case your user is Australian. This is very US-centric.


They're already accepting "a candy", "a piece of candy", "a sweet" and "a lolly". :)


Why can't we just say he eats candy


That would be "il mange du bonbon" using the partitive article "du" which refers to an undetermined amount of something.


When to use un and une? Still confused!!! And same with the le and la...


I'm Brazilian and we have that same thing here. In both Portuguese and French, we have male and female nouns. In English, you just use 'the' for all nouns. In French, "la" (the) and "une" (a) are for female nouns, while "le" (the) and "un" (a) are for male nouns. In Portuguese, however, it is "a" (the) and "uma" (a) for female nouns, and "o" (the) and "um" (a) for male nouns.


I always thought that "bonbon" was a chocolate like the "kisses" chocolates that you get in USA


"Un bonbon" is not necessarily a piece of chocolate. It refers to a bite-sized piece of candy.


I also get very confused because in Portuguese a "bombom" are those round chocolate balls with fillings in them


That's kind of how it is here in the US. Very rich, special and decadent, and also used occasionally in phases to describe being spoiled or lazy, "I was in bed all day eating bon bons while those firemen were fighting the fire". Over the last several years ice cream bon bons have become very popular and now that's what I think of when I hear the word bon bons.


I was taught that when referring to the articles, 'un' or 'une' ,in english, they aren't mentioned in the translation. 'un bonbon' would translate to 'candy', not 'a piece of candy'.


Not at all. The indefinite articles (un/une) refer to a unit of measure, if you will, meaning a single item. So "un bonbon" is a piece of candy. The confusion may enter because "candy" is generally used as an uncountable noun, but in some regions where English is spoken, "a candy" means "a piece of candy".


Why not it (as in a dog or cat) is eating a piece of candy?


He unless there is other context indicating that "it" would be correct in English.


Gente sou br ms estudo ingles e acho q ta errado


In England we eat sweets. Candy is an American word!


"He eats a sweet" should be acceptable, I believe. In UK english, "a sweet" means "a piece of candy".


Why is 'he is eating a sweet' unaccepted? You'd never say candy in Europe, certainly not in the UK. And if it's 'a piece of' then surely that would be written in French rather than just 'bonbon'?


"sweet" ought be accepted. I'm American and usually say candy, but understand sweet, and it's just as valid.


He is eating a sweet.... Not a piece of a sweet and why do we have to suffer american English "candy" over "sweet"?


Sweet ought be accepted. Report it every time, that they eventually accept it.


would it be "il manger un bonbon" because its 'he is eating' not 'he eats'?


That would basically be "he to eat" because manger is the full verb. You need to conjugate the first verb in a phrase. E.g. il mange, tu manges, vous mangez, etc.


Lolly or sweet for Australia, NZ and England. No more Ameringlish please!


You are going to see a lot of terms which appear in UK English and US English. If your answer is accepted, then it is accepted. When you sign on to Duolingo, please understand that you are entering a world where English is spoken in many variations. "Lolly" is accepted to accommodate Australian English and "sweet" singular, "sweets" plural, for British English, but there is no version of Duolingo that is exclusively for the use of Australian English speakers. So we must face the fact that different versions of English will be shown and that we do not make disparaging remarks about others.


It should not be penalizing correct answers.


If, as Andrew433661 says, you want to say "candy", it is really not correct. "Un bonbon" refers to a singular item, not a category or something general, i.e., it is "a piece of candy" to AmE speakers whereas BrE speakers are likely to refer to it as "a sweet". For "he is eating candy", it would be "il mange des bonbons", where "des" is the plural form of the partitive article referring to an unknown quantity of something. In the given exercise, "un bonbon" is not an unknown quantity, it is one. Given the various forms that candy may take, in AmE, this is generally expressed as "a piece of". BrE approaches the concept of candy similar to the French "un bonbon", referring to it as "a sweet". Does this help you?


Exactly what correct answers are being penalized?


if you put just "candy" instead of "a candy" it is being penalized so TGermanTrans is not incorrect


Thanks, Andrew.


in English is the word "candy" countable to say "a candy" ?


Yes, it can be, considering that "un bonbon" refers to one piece of candy, which some would call "a sweet", "a lolly, "a piece of candy" or just "a candy".


No, or at least not that I know of. It's always "a piece of candy," or a mint, etc. but not a candy


Different strokes, Maggie. It may be either countable or uncountable. "A candy" can mean "a piece of candy".


Is there no continuous verb in french? How to know if it's not "is eating" or just "eats/eat"?


French has no "continuous present" tense. So "je mange" may be translated as "I eat" or "I am eating". If you need to emphasize that the action is happening at this very moment, you can say "je suis en train de manger un bonbon". The expression "en train de" with the infinitive is translated with the continuous present tense in English.


There is, but it is not used as habitually as in English. It's used to emphasise that the action takes time, or to establish it is happening when something else happens, or for emphasis.

You form the present continuous using: être en train de + inf.

Je suis en train the manger un bonbon. = I'm busy eating a sweetie.


Candy is an uncountable noun in American English and we therefore do not use the indefinite article 'a' but instead some/piece of.


It may be either countable or uncountable in the same way as one would say, "I'll have a coffee" where "a coffee" means (a cup of) coffee. I.e., un bonbon = a piece of candy (US), a sweet (UK), a lolly (Australia), not to be confused with a lollipop (une sucette).


A lolly is often referred to as a "lollipop" or a "sucker" in the U.S. and Canada.


Australian English uses "lolly" to refer to a wrapped piece of candy. When it's on a stick, it is generally called a "lollipop" which is not called by the generic name since it is a specific kind of candy/sweet. Aus/NZ may use it generically although the Cambridge English Dictionary is fairly specific about it. In that sense, a lollipop is not "un bonbon", but "une sucette".


Why can't it be "He eats candy" ? Why is it specific to 1 and how do ypu know?


It says "un bonbon" so by whatever term you choose to call "bonbon", it is one, a, (or) a piece of (candy).


Right, "a piece of candy." "A candy" sounds like a non-native speaker of English.


No one is forcing you to say "a candy", Maggie. But believe it or not, some native English speakers actually do. Is it okay with you that we let them say that?


Why does it have to be "a peice of candy" or "a candy" rather than just "candy"?


Please see my note to TGermanTrans below for a complete answer.


I thought bonbon was candy not a sweet?


It's AmE and BrE. In AmE, "un bonbon" is "a piece of candy". In BrE, "un bonbon" is "a sweet" or perhaps "a lolly". A clear understanding of this takes us face-to-face with the use of the French partitive articles which are used to refer to undetermined quantities of something. Here's an example of how it works with the noun "bonbon" (a countable noun):

  • un bonbon = a piece of candy (AmE), a sweet/lolly (BrE)
  • le bonbon = the (piece of) candy, the candy, the sweet, etc.
  • les bonbons = the candies (there is more than one of them) but refers to some specific ones.
  • des bonbons = (some) candy. There is no counterpart to the plural partitive article in English, although "some" can be used. It is usually omitted in English, but the "des" may not be omitted in French when used to mean an undetermined quantity of candy.

To learn more, open this link in your browser: https://www.thoughtco.com/du-de-la-des-1368977


what is the difference between il meaning he, and il meaning they?


"Il" is a pronoun meaning "he" or sometimes "it" if referring to something previously mentioned. It never means "they", which is "ils" or "elles".


What the heck is the difrence from a pice of candy and candy?!!


Please see my note to TGermanTrans below for a complete answer.


"It eats a sweet" is wrong, why?


What's wrong with "he"?


Nothing, but I suppose there are other cases. For example: an insect or an animal that I don't know its gender, I would use ''It" in these cases.


How do I know if I am supposed say "a piece of" or not?


"Un bonbon" refers to a singular item, not a category or something general, i.e., it is "a piece of candy" to AmE speakers whereas BrE speakers are likely to refer to it as "a sweet".


why is he eating A candy? shouldn't it be he is eating candy???


Please see my note to TGermanTrans below for a complete answer.


I feel like "He is eating candy" should be acceptable. I understood that I was omitting the article for the sake of a clean translation, but the app seems to want me to include the article even though it's not quite right in English. Duolingo often punishes me for clunky translations that err on the side of accuracy to the source language, so I decided to go with accuracy to the target. No consistency.


Shouldn't it say "he eats a candy"?


That is one of the accepted answers but perhaps not the most natural expression in English. The French present tense may be translated as either "he eats" or "he is eating". French does not have a separate verb tense for present continuous but it is used quite often in English.


what type of candy HMMM ;)


In England we eat 'sweets', we don't use the word 'candy' although they do in America.


My concern is how to know when "il mange" means I am eating or I eat


I can't hear the "il" or "je" on the voices on here and get them wrong. It starts with "...mange un bonbon"


I don't understand why "He is eating candy" is not accepted. I don't say "he is eating a candy" when I speak... I always just say candy in general.


But the sentence means that he's eating just one candy, not candy in general.


❤❤❤:-[ :'( :-


If you've nothing constructive to add Ciaran please don't swear & clutter up the discussion thread....these messages are sent to the inbox of everyone who is interested in learning with the help of Duo discussions.


"One" candy!, is still correct.


I use UK English. My answer of sweet should be acceptable.


It said "il mange une bonbon" and i put in , " he is eating a candy" it said i was wrong there is a word in french that is piece why didn't they teach it to us? Reply if thiw makes NO sense


A piece of fish candy..................it's a joke

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