"Do you have it?"
Translation:Est-ce que tu l'as ?
"It" is a personal pronoun and better translated to the object pronouns "le" or "la": "L'avez-vous ?
"Avez-vous ?" is formal and "ça" is informal, so they don't go together well.
"Vous avez ça ?" is spoken French and acceptable.
"avez-vous" can be the plural you, not necessarily the polite vous.
the fact that it is marked wrong is probably because "ça" is the shortened and more casual of "cela", which is translated as "that".
"est-ce que tu l'as" should be accepted, not "qu'est-ce que tu l'as". qu'est-ce que tu as is meant to ask for what one has, the direct object of has. tu l'as also has a direct object, l'. "qu'est-ce que tu l'as" would be translated as "what do you have it" which doesn't make sense.
no, the subject-verb inversion in the question "vous avez ça?" should be "avez-vous ça?".
you're missing the "it" equivalent, "l'" that stands for le or la. otherwise, "est-ce que vous l'avez?" should be accepted as correct. there are 3 ways to form a yes/no question in French:
- the colloquial statement form that is only indicated by ponctuation or intonation (vous l'avez?)
- the more formal subject-verb inversion (l'avez-vous?)
- the help of a question marker (est-ce que vous l'avez?)
Out of interest, Est-ce que vous lavez? sounds like Est-ce que vous l'avez? Is the latter 'illegal' without an object, even if it is simply ça, etc, please. Or is this scenario just one of those things i.e. context to resolve.
in your 2nd sentence, there is a direct object: l'. it is perfectly grammatical.
I just wondered if there are rules about sentences that are very different but sound alike. Is it a matter of context and courtesy? It is a bit like the famous "Fork handles vs four candles" comedy sketch,- everything on the customer's shopping list was a major homophone! The video is online and great for a giggle for anyone learning English. (Find under 'The Two Ronnies').