Translation:Let's eat apples!
The duo staff must really love apples, or maybe a strawberry here and there, but no plums, peaches, oranges, kiwi etc. :)
Right? I wish DL would expand on the food vocabulary. It seems pretty limited, especially in Spanish.
Yes, wouldn't it be nice to have a greater variety of fruit?
Naranja, uva, higo, frambuesa, piña.
It's not much to ask.
What's the difference between this and "Vamos a comer manzanas"? What's the difference between "vayamos" and "vamos"??
Hola Supppentrulli: "Vamos a comer manzanas" and "Comamos manzanas" both can mean "Let's eat apples", However, "Vamos a comer manzanas" can ALSO mean: "We are going to eat apples". It depends on the context and tone of the conversations.
"Vamos" is present indicative tense, first person plural ("we"). It can mean "we go", "we are going", "we do go". It is used in normal, present tense sentences.
"Vayamos" is present subjunctive tense, first person plural ("we"). It would normally be used in the secondary clause of a sentence to mean: "that we go", "we may go", "we might go", "we will go", etc., depending on the context and tone of the sentence. The primary clause will contain a word that sets up the need for subjunctive, such as a word of hope, need, desire, want, doubt, etc. Example: I hope that we will go to the party = "Espero que vayamos a la fiesta."
suppentrulli" : These both mean "Let's eat": "Vamos a comer" and "Comamos".
So, Spanish speakers say ¡Vamos! instead of ¡Vayamos! despite "Let's go!" being an imperative command. Just an irregularity?
First person imperative
To make a 1st person command let's ____(insert verb) we have two options
1) Use 'vamos a __' (insert verb infinitive) form
Vamos a comer
2) Use the nosotros subjunctive form of the verb.
Eg. [No] comamos allí ==> Let's [not] eat here
But there is an exception in the case of ir
For affirmative, use vamos
For negative, use no vayamos
Note placing the pronouns
- Vamos a infinitive form
Vamos a sentarnor
- Imperative form (affirmative only)
Drop the final s. Attach the pronoun. Add accent to second last syllable.
Nos vamos ==> vámonos
Nos sentemos ==> Sentémonos
se lo hagamos ==> hagámosla
No nos sentarnos
No sé la hagamos
I put "eat apples" (thinking this was a phrase sort of like the "drink milk" ad campaign. How would you know to add "Let us..." to this?
You would know by the conjugation of the verb, and it is third person plural (we). The only commands one can use for (you) eat apples! are 'You' which are Tú, Usted, and Usteds. The we command includes both the speaker and someone else. In English it translates as 'Let's eat apples'.
This is called the imperative mood and it is conjugated as the following:
(tú) come=Eat, (usted) coma,=Eat, (nosotros) comamos=Let's Eat, (vosotros) comed=Eat (used in Spain), (ustedes) coman=Eat (Used in Spain and Latin America,
negativo: no comas=Don't Eat, no coma=Don't Eat, no comamos=Let's Not Eat, no comáis=Don't Eat (Spain), no coman=Don't Eat (Spain and Latin America)
Thank you for explaining this so well! I had totally forgotten about nosotros commands and it threw me off!
Thank you, jfGor, for your excellent explanation, but I just want to add that "vamos" is not third person plural. "Vamos" (literally, "we go") is first person plural. Because "vamos" has the first person plural subject pronoun "nosotros," a more literal translation into English of the colloquial Spanish "vamos a" (We are going to/Let us) must include a pronoun that means "we." That is why the English object pronoun "us" is a necessary translation when "vamos" + "a" is translated colloquially as "let us go" (literally, "let us to go"). In this translation, the English null subject is "you," and the direct object is "us."
Unlike Spanish Command Mood, which inflects verbs with a suffix (in the case of "comer," the declension "-amos"), English commands don't use the verb "let" because only the null second person "you" is used as the subject of singular and plural imperative mood sentences. The English verb "let" is typically thought of as being used with a suggestion rather than a command, as a way of making a "command" sound less harsh. For example, a villain might snarl "Sit down," but a doctor might say "Let's sit down." The doctor is also ordering you to sit, but he is saying it more politely.
This being said, from the other comments here made by native Spanish speakers, I deduce that "ir" + "a" is colloquially a command. That is why Lurker_Wolfie used the term "first person imperative." Your two comments, jfGor, helped me put it together that "vamos a" is an example of Spanish first person imperative. "Comamos" is Spanish Imperative Mood formed with the suffix "-amos," which is Spanish first person plural, and hence, Spanish First Person Imperative. English has ONLY a third person imperative, which is used with the singular or plural null subject "you."
Good point! The apostrophe means that "let's" = "let us." Without the apostrophe, "lets" = "allows."
Hmm, I'm confused about this. Is "comamos" imperative or subjunctive in this example?
Given the structure of the sentence, it looks like the imperative.
The conjugations for the imperative and the subjunctive are the same! (Except for 2nd person tu/vosotros)
Can anyone give an example of the "tú/vosotros" declensions of the Imperative and Subjunctive Moods? Also, are you saying that all of the declensions of the Spanish imperative and subjunctive moods are always the same, except for specific irregular verbs and except for Spanish second person familiar?
Subjunctive generally does not show up independently; there is always some context for it -- introduction in a "si" (if) clause, or being part of a phrase that's dependent on an earlier verb like querer, dudar, etc. If you see a bare verb that's in a subjunctive-like form, it's probably a command.
In what case would you use subjunctive vs indicative for sentences starting with 'Let's'. 'Let's go to the beach is 'Vamos a la playa'. That's indicative. What's the difference?
This isn't subjunctive, it's imperative -- it's a command. (Subjunctive is for talking about speculative or counterfactual situations, and the 2nd-plural subjunctive is vayamos.)
"Vamos" is special. The verb "ir" is super-duper-irregular. As it happens, its 2nd plural imperative form is the same as its 2nd plural present indicative form. So, "Vamos a la playa," can be either indicative, "We're going to the beach," or imperative, "Let's go to the beach."
I tend to confuse "manzana" with "mañana", at first glance this sentence sounded a touch dark. Like that sentence in future tense; "mañana habrá mas comida"