"¡Comamosmanzanas!"

Translation:Let's eat apples!

5 years ago

64 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/hunter18288

Pretty dang excited about some apples

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jfGor
jfGor
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The duo staff must really love apples, or maybe a strawberry here and there, but no plums, peaches, oranges, kiwi etc. :)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Crazy-Diamond23

Right? I wish DL would expand on the food vocabulary. It seems pretty limited, especially in Spanish.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Furbolg

I think it's time for a Food 3

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elizadeux
elizadeux
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Yes, wouldn't it be nice to have a greater variety of fruit?

Naranja, uva, higo, frambuesa, piña.

It's not much to ask.

9 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BoredWithDuoNow

Me encantan los arándanos.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Unapersona37
Unapersona37
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Me gustan los arándanos, pero me gusta más el plátano.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EmilCohen1

:-)

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aparidon

And

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/The.Other.Caleb

What if he's talking about iPhones . . . ?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/breqwas
breqwas
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That reminds me of somepony.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CNyE
CNyE
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My pony def prefers apples to all those other things

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Suppentrulli

What's the difference between this and "Vamos a comer manzanas"? What's the difference between "vayamos" and "vamos"??

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola Supppentrulli: "Vamos a comer manzanas" and "Comamos manzanas" both can mean "Let's eat apples", However, "Vamos a comer manzanas" can ALSO mean: "We are going to eat apples". It depends on the context and tone of the conversations.

"Vamos" is present indicative tense, first person plural ("we"). It can mean "we go", "we are going", "we do go". It is used in normal, present tense sentences.

"Vayamos" is present subjunctive tense, first person plural ("we"). It would normally be used in the secondary clause of a sentence to mean: "that we go", "we may go", "we might go", "we will go", etc., depending on the context and tone of the sentence. The primary clause will contain a word that sets up the need for subjunctive, such as a word of hope, need, desire, want, doubt, etc. Example: I hope that we will go to the party = "Espero que vayamos a la fiesta."

CHAU

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Rickydito

suppentrulli" : These both mean "Let's eat": "Vamos a comer" and "Comamos".

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Furbolg

So, Spanish speakers say ¡Vamos! instead of ¡Vayamos! despite "Let's go!" being an imperative command. Just an irregularity?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Since I first posted this comment, I have eliminated incorrect material in it as quickly as I understood why it was wrong. Thank you all for your explanations of my errors. I need to state upfront not only that I was writing about my less-than-perfect understanding of Spanish subjunctive verb forms but also that I was ignorant of the fact that the Spanish first person plural of any regular verb is the same in both subjunctive mood and imperative mood. (This may also apply to irregular Spanish verbs, but I don't know enough to say so definitively.)

What led me down the garden path of incorrect theses was the use of "let's" in the colloquial English interpretation. If anyone can explain why "let's" is used in this colloquial way with Spanish first person plural verbs, I would greatly appreciate it. Is it just a Spanish idiom that is a given?

Note: I came back to this yet again, and I think I answered this question down below.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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How can you say 'Vamos/vayamos a comamos'? That would be 'We go/let's go to we eat.' The second verb should be in the infinitive.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Since I wrote my comment to Furbolg, I have learned that English DOES have a subjunctive mood, although it has not been taught in the U.S., at least where I live, for many years. Unfortunately, my comment contained errors that may have confused or misled others. For this, I apologize.

When I wrote the original comment, I was not aware that when a second Spanish verb follows a first in a compound verb, the second is usually in infinitive form (excepting, of course, the helping verbs "estar" and "haber" as the first verb of a Spanish verb concatenation). For example, as Andreaja69 pointed out, ¡Vayamos a comer! (Let's eat!) is correct, and ¡Vayamos a comamos! is wrong.

Also, I was flat-out wrong about "vamos" being an elision of "vayamos." As Lisapignura stated, "vamos" is Spanish present tense indicative mood and "vayamos" is Spanish present tense subjunctive mood. The word "vamos" being shorter than the word "vayamos" has nothing to do with elision.

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Coming back to this problematic post of mine, I wanted to add in a second comment that I made the error of using "comamos" instead of "comer" because I was thinking of how some Spanish subjunctive sentences have a first clause followed by a second clause, with either the first clause, the second clause, or both being in the subjunctive mood. From this lesson, however, I now realize that the Spanish imperative mood uses the same verb form as the Spanish subjunctive mood because issuing a command is different from guaranteeing that it will be followed. In other words, the conjugation is the same for both moods because of the uncertainty factor.

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jennifer736590

thank you! This was really helpful!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BoredWithDuoNow

I think you meant to say the subjunctive is used more in Spanish, not less.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Thank you for pointing out my typo. I have corrected it. Also, since posting the comment above, I have learned that English subjunctive sentences also follow the WEIRDO rules when hypotheticals are discussed. See my comment about the English subjunctive in the Discussion Section at:

https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/29327432

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lurker_Wolfie

First person imperative

To make a 1st person command let's ____(insert verb) we have two options

1) Use 'vamos a __' (insert verb infinitive) form

Vamos a comer

2) Use the nosotros subjunctive form of the verb.

Eg. [No] comamos allí ==> Let's [not] eat here

But there is an exception in the case of ir

For affirmative, use vamos

For negative, use no vayamos

Note placing the pronouns

  1. Vamos a infinitive form

Vamos a sentarnor

  1. Imperative form (affirmative only)

Drop the final s. Attach the pronoun. Add accent to second last syllable.

Nos vamos ==> vámonos

Nos sentemos ==> Sentémonos

se lo hagamos ==> hagámosla

But

No vayamos

No nos sentarnos

No sé la hagamos

Source:

https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/nosotros-commands

https://studyspanish.com/grammar/lessons/noscomm

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JenYagami

They both mean the same but "vayamos" is more formal

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jerrymack

wouldn't the imperative be "eat apples"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KatrinaMac4

In the tú form, yes, in the we form it's always Let's....

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

See my reply to Ishtarmuzl.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/inckwise

I put "eat apples" (thinking this was a phrase sort of like the "drink milk" ad campaign. How would you know to add "Let us..." to this?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jfGor
jfGor
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You would know by the conjugation of the verb, and it is third person plural (we). The only commands one can use for (you) eat apples! are 'You' which are Tú, Usted, and Usteds. The we command includes both the speaker and someone else. In English it translates as 'Let's eat apples'.

This is called the imperative mood and it is conjugated as the following:

afirmativo

(tú) come=Eat, (usted) coma,=Eat, (nosotros) comamos=Let's Eat, (vosotros) comed=Eat (used in Spain), (ustedes) coman=Eat (Used in Spain and Latin America,

negativo: no comas=Don't Eat, no coma=Don't Eat, no comamos=Let's Not Eat, no comáis=Don't Eat (Spain), no coman=Don't Eat (Spain and Latin America)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EdibleSandals

Thank you for explaining this so well! I had totally forgotten about nosotros commands and it threw me off!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Thank you, jfGor, for your excellent explanation, but I just want to add that "vamos" is not third person plural. "Vamos" (literally, "we go") is first person plural. Because "vamos" has the first person plural subject pronoun "nosotros," a more literal translation into English of the colloquial Spanish "vamos a" (We are going to/Let us) must include a pronoun that means "we." That is why the English object pronoun "us" is a necessary translation when "vamos" + "a" is translated colloquially as "let us go" (literally, "let us to go"). In this translation, the English null subject is "you," and the direct object is "us."

Unlike Spanish Command Mood, which inflects verbs with a suffix (in the case of "comer," the declension "-amos"), English commands don't use the verb "let" because only the null second person "you" is used as the subject of singular and plural imperative mood sentences. The English verb "let" is typically thought of as being used with a suggestion rather than a command, as a way of making a "command" sound less harsh. For example, a villain might snarl "Sit down," but a doctor might say "Let's sit down." The doctor is also ordering you to sit, but he is saying it more politely.

This being said, from the other comments here made by native Spanish speakers, I deduce that "ir" + "a" is colloquially a command. That is why Lurker_Wolfie used the term "first person imperative." Your two comments, jfGor, helped me put it together that "vamos a" is an example of Spanish first person imperative. "Comamos" is Spanish Imperative Mood formed with the suffix "-amos," which is Spanish first person plural, and hence, Spanish First Person Imperative. English has ONLY a third person imperative, which is used with the singular or plural null subject "you."

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sarahmfrazier99

Definitely make sure you use an apostrophe "Let's"

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Good point! The apostrophe means that "let's" = "let us." Without the apostrophe, "lets" = "allows."

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EmilCohen1

The exclamation marks the meaning

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AndyLee355441

¿Como se gustan esas manzanas?

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TCAC2
TCAC2
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Hmm, I'm confused about this. Is "comamos" imperative or subjunctive in this example?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JuevesHuevos

Given the structure of the sentence, it looks like the imperative.

The conjugations for the imperative and the subjunctive are the same! (Except for 2nd person tu/vosotros)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Can anyone give an example of the "tú/vosotros" declensions of the Imperative and Subjunctive Moods? Also, are you saying that all of the declensions of the Spanish imperative and subjunctive moods are always the same, except for specific irregular verbs and except for Spanish second person familiar?

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

Subjunctive generally does not show up independently; there is always some context for it -- introduction in a "si" (if) clause, or being part of a phrase that's dependent on an earlier verb like querer, dudar, etc. If you see a bare verb that's in a subjunctive-like form, it's probably a command.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DJdeRidder

In what case would you use subjunctive vs indicative for sentences starting with 'Let's'. 'Let's go to the beach is 'Vamos a la playa'. That's indicative. What's the difference?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

This isn't subjunctive, it's imperative -- it's a command. (Subjunctive is for talking about speculative or counterfactual situations, and the 2nd-plural subjunctive is vayamos.)

"Vamos" is special. The verb "ir" is super-duper-irregular. As it happens, its 2nd plural imperative form is the same as its 2nd plural present indicative form. So, "Vamos a la playa," can be either indicative, "We're going to the beach," or imperative, "Let's go to the beach."

http://www.spanishdict.com/conjugate/ir

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ScottBoggs3

I tend to confuse "manzana" with "mañana", at first glance this sentence sounded a touch dark. Like that sentence in future tense; "mañana habrá mas comida"

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Buena-Onda

Sounds like "tomamos".

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/espeekespanish

Question for native speakers: can this also be translated as "We eat apples!"? (DL doesn't accept)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hunter18288

That would be "Comemos manzanas." Since "comamos" is in the subjunctive (imperative) mood, it's being used as a command here.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

English commands have no written subject. The subject of an English command is always understood to be either singular or plural "you."

Unlike English, Spanish additionally has a first person plural verb form for Spanish imperative mood. Because its null pronoun subject is not "understood" when such a verb form is translated into English, the phrase "let us" is used to indicate that the people in question are "us," which is the first person plural objective case pronoun.

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/symbiosis.5

can "comamos manzanas" be translated to "we should eat apples"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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Sorry, no

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sojournerbliss

I think, "we eat apples" should have been accepted. Though i guess the exclamation points should have cluex me in. Still, it could happen that someone exciredly provlaimed, "We eat apples! "

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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We eat = comemos. 'Comamos' is the imperative, 'let's eat'.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Bhaynes1
Bhaynes1
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Since the conjugations are the same for the imperative and the subjective, how is the student supposed to know which is intended here, especially with the exclamation points. Seems to me that, eat apples, should be accepted.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andreaja69
Andreaja69
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As this is the 'we' form, you have to say 'let's', which is a contraction of 'let us... eat apples'.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alej670
alej670
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is very bad

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/knickknacks12

...to keep the doctors away!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/IshtarmuzI

Come on, in the real world you, "Eat apples!" and it is not wrong.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AurosHarman

The conjugation is first-plural, meaning it's a command directed at a "we", a group that includes the speaker. In English, the way we convey that idea is almost always, "Let's [verb]". "Eat apples!" can be directed at one person or multiple people, but it cannot be directed at yourself.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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Helpful! Gracias

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Blas_de_Lezo00
Blas_de_Lezo00
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Let's eat apples = Let us eat apples, 1st person plural imperative to make a suggestion.

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HarpoChico

Apples rot your teeth...

1 year ago
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