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"Ella es peor que yo."

Translation:She is worse than me.

5 years ago

71 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/percyflage

She is worse than ME? That ain't good grammar to I.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
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I notice duolingo often accepts this either way. I have no idea what the correct English is but "She is worse than me" sounds fine to me and "She is worse than I am" sounds more unnatural to me. It is probably a natural thing in language evolution that the less syllables that can convey the same idea will become common.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/drdaz

I agree. The correct grammar is "She is worse than I (am)," but "me" is colloquially common. You give another perfect example with "less syllables," which should be "fewer syllables," as syllables are countable entities. The problem is, it's a fine line between evolution of a language, and the degradation of one.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Balaur
Balaur
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Languages do not degrade. They don't really evolve, either. They simply change. Something may be considered correct at one point, then incorrect or unnatural later on. Sometimes there's only one acceptable answer; sometimes there are two; sometimes one drops out of use and there's only one again (a different one). Pronunciation changes, vocabulary and the meanings of words change, and grammar certainly changes too. This is the reason why we don't speak English like Shakespeare or Chaucer or even earlier historical figures (I dare you to try reading Beowulf in the original Old English; it's impossible without learning the language). It's the reason that Brits, Canadians, Americans, Aussies, Kiwis, etc. all speak differently. It's also the reason we're learning Spanish right now and not Latin. I'm not trying to argue, I just thought I'd offer another perspective (I've studied linguistics).

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JMBarnes
JMBarnes
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Yep. And speaking of Shakespeare, he was evidently fine with constructions like “than me” (sometimes called “prepositional than” because in such a construction than can be analyzed as a preposition whose object is me).

“A man no mightier than thyself or me” —Shakespeare, The Tragedy of Julius Caesar, Act I, Scene III, line 72

Similar examples can be found in the works of many other great English writers. Such prescriptivists as percyflage and drdaz above would presumably regard this as incorrect and rewrite it as “A man no mightier than thou (art) or I (am),” but I’ll take Shakespeare’s judgment over theirs. Dismissing such constructions as examples of the “degradation” of language is not only presumptuous, but ahistorical.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/percyflage

" but I’ll take Shakespeare’s judgment over theirs." I cry thy grammars foul fancies JMBarnes. The spear waver is dead, his words fade and falter trammeled changeless in the embrace of heartless time. So...Creo que el es peor que yo :)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TobyBartels
TobyBartels
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Yes indeed! But let me make a point about evolution, because you made one mistake: languages DO evolve, which means just what you said afterwards: they simply change. The idea that biological evolution (which I presume you were thinking of) always makes things better is just as wrong as the idea that linguistic evolution always makes things worse. Both species and languages are merely adapting to local conditions, not moving on any absolute scale of good or bad. And while I'm not against judging these changes (in either case), that will have to be by some external standard, and they may equally likely be good or bad in both cases.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Balaur
Balaur
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First, in response to JMBarnes: While it's interesting to note that Shakespeare himself used these kinds of constructions, and I agree that it can still be used like this today, these examples don't offer any evidence for the structure's use in the modern day. It still holds true that languages change, it just happened that this particular peace of grammar remained more or less the same in this case.

In response to Daniel-in-BC's most recent comment (since I can't respond directly to it): I'd argue that it's already considered acceptable now, but only in the spoken language. It's extremely widespread in the colloquial speech of so many people, that linguists can't help but analyze it as correct. In fact, the whole principle behind descriptive linguistics is that if native speakers use it, then it's considered correct. As I mentioned, this is only true in the spoken language (or in written language intended to directly reflect spoken language [e.g. online chatting, quotes in literature, etc.]). As writing is secondary to spoken language, literary language (as well as language used in formal settings like speeches) tends to retain some archaisms and prescriptivist rules, such as the use of 'whom', not ending sentences in prepositions, etc.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Daniel-in-BC

And speaking of grammar, "their/theirs" is technically NOT an acceptable singular, gender-neutral pronoun :P!

@ zombiesue: I know you're just having fun ... but I also wanted to add that this is changing in common usage and linguists have been following this trend. It seems that at some point it will be considered an "acceptable" usage.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyanGunn

Balaur: ahem. steps onto soapbox There is absolutely nothing more irritating than an advertisement or other significantly viewed text ending in an open preposition, thank you very much. Poor education and lazy speakers are not a language evolving; rather, it is very much to its detriment. Regarding "whom," it is still very much correct to use when used correctly.

decends from soapbox

:D

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Balaur
Balaur
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In response to Toby: you're right. I was confusing evolution with natural selection. My mistake. However, I don't completely agree that "languages are merely adapting to local conditions", since the nature of linguistic change is not completely understood, and can be caused by a large number of factors, some of which I would not say include any sort of adaptation to any sort of conditions (for example, most types of semantic change).

While in other cases language change may indeed occur as a result of adapting to certain conditions, I think it's best to leave out a term best reserved for biology when describing language change.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

For sooth, thy speaketh da troof, dude!

Evolution in one breath.

Or de-evolution, whichever.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dhaas70

Correct - but really it is what is considered a contracted comparative sentence in English. Much the same way we contract words, there are times to contract sentences. The real English translation should be "She is worse than I am bad." Essentially two independent sentences using a conjunction and then contracted.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jasperjack1968

The true sign of language degradation is when people can no longer understand each other coz they put different meanings to a word.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/klooth
klooth
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To my parents and grandparents, "She is worse than me" sounds terrible and if you said it, they would correct you: "She is worse than I". To the point that they over-correct. For example, if I say "He hit my brother and me" (which is correct), they might falsely correct me: "He hit my brother and I".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/babsblabs
babsblabs
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I hear that type of "over-correction" also. It is simply not correct grammar.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MystyrNile
MystyrNile
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"She is worse than I." is not overcorrect, it's only implying a verb.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/klooth
klooth
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Right, that's what I said. "She is worse than I" is correct. But "He hit my brother and I" is not. That's the overcorrect.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MystyrNile
MystyrNile
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Oh, I see what you're saying. I missed your colon.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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Standard English dictates nominative pronouns after linking verbs especially to be. So the correct answer to who is there is It is I. But since language is ever evolving that rule appears to be pretty dead. One purpose of grammar rules is to keep a language from changing too quickly and keep it intelligible world wide, although regional accepted variations creep in. But in this case I think I am beating a dead horse in trying to enforce this rule.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobertKinzie

DL accepted "I" 4/22/18

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/John620841

She is worse than I is how I was taught as the correct phrasing of this sentence.

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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You are absolutely correct, but either you are almost as old as I, or you had a more traditional grammar teacher than many younger people. I am 64, and even when Iearned those rules, which I do actually practice, they were not followed by many or even most people, especially in spoken American English. Today I assume either they aren't even taught or everyone sleeps through the lessons because many people absolutely do not know this rule. But language is essentially a living being which grows, develops and changes, so I think you do have to say that the rule no longer describes English usage. But the good news for those of us who are conscious of the originally correct usage of subject and object pronouns is that it does make learning many foreign languages easier as most have not lost that distinction.

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AbbyToloski

Yeah thats what happened to me too!

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Eillom
Eillom
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Does anyone know if peor only means poor as in "she is a poor student," or if this can also imply monetarily poor?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Balaur
Balaur
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Be careful about the translation of this word. It specifically means 'worse', not 'poor'. The word for 'poor' (monetarily) is 'pobre', and I think it can be used for both meanings that you mentioned, though I'm not entirely sure.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/taxgirl17

how come it wouldn't accept poorer when that was one of the definitions given?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/percyflage

The alternatives offered are not all valid for every phrase. Each one could be the right one in some circumstance. balaur says above.."Be careful about the translation of this word. It specifically means 'worse', not 'poor' " Peor = worse = poorer and not any other meaning of "poorer" if you follow me - poorer in health, poorer financially" etc.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jack.george

that was way too muddled to decipher the peor poetion. it actually kind of skipped.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BP_TIMO
BP_TIMO
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there was no me!!!!!!!!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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Actually the original rule in English would be to say She is worse than I as the am is assumed. Certainly if you add the am it is clear. Since English has no body which rules over what is currently correct like Spanish, French and German do, I never know when to give up on a rule. But that is what I was taught when I went to school and the dinosaurs roamed the earth.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/darkbuttrfly
darkbuttrfly
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I missed "she is worse than I am" because I thought it would have to be "yo soy"...

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Daniel-in-BC

It's more about the English grammar. "She is worse than I" or "She is worse than I am" are both "officially" acceptable. "She is worse than me" is colloquial and commonly used. Personally, I think all should be accepted by DL.

As for the Spanish, I don't think they would use the soy after the yo in this case. Just the yo. At least, that's how I've always heard it. But I'm not a native speaker.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/86whitey

doesnt peor also mean poorer??? i lost a heart for saying she is poorer than me...poorer is like a synonym for worse anyways right

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DavidYasha1

Sup with all the negativiry duolingo?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Fantasma_Negro82

Wouldn't it be ella es peor que soy... to be she is worse than I am?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/djHQBB

Thia is a general question. The spanish used here is it spoken in spain or south america? How different are the two kinds of spanish. I am going to move to spain and need to be understood there !

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MikaelKosm1

When you're finally done reading all the paragraphs people write hahha

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Ella555644

What does que mean? Does it mean than?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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It is hard to say that que really "means" than, but that is certainly its meaning here. Que is most often a subordinating conjunction that introduces a dependent clause and is translates like the "that" which was used previously in this sentence., or it is a subject or.object pronoun which corresponds to.that, which or who/whom. But it is used on comparisons of inequality and therefore corresponds to than.

http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/inequal.htm

Comparisons of equality generally use como, which is more in line with some of its other uses.

http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/equal.htm

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JP6SvK

So much time, so many words. Common and correct are sometimes mutually exclusive. While that doesn't necessarily make either comfortable, understanding the distinction is still critical for consistent communication.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Yasser417005

I think it should be "She is worser than me",shouldn't it?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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Worser is non-standard English and considered by many English speakers absolutely incorrect. While most English adjectives simply add er and est in the comparative and the superlative like rich, richer, richest or cold, colder, coldest, both good and bad are exceptions. Good becomes better and best and bad becomes worse and worst. While language is an ever evolving almost living thing and sometimes those changes have to do with making irregular constructions more regular, it is important to be cognizant of what the rules were and conservative about adopting any changes in formal settings as people often make snap judgements about you based on your use of language. I say this because worser is definitely one of those words I would react negatively to if I were interviewing a job candidate for example, despite my understanding of language evolution.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AhmedMetwa547013

Actualy there is no me in the options

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Glen366430

LOL "me" isn't even an option to select for the translation

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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One of the reasons that there are ever more building block style translations is simply to avoid endless discussions over English grammar I think. I am one of those dinosaurs who actually say than I, but it does seem to be so dead that many people don't even know that it used to be considered a grammar rule. But knowing these old rules does help in learning new languages where the rule still exists.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DouglasDod10
DouglasDod10
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Proper English would be she is worse than I.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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I agree. And those that know that have an easier time learning this in Spanish. Is it no longer accepted? I believe it used to be.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AbhishekKu329149

What the hell duolingo...... There was no 'me' in options but it is showing 'me' in suggestions...

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MicahShucks

Harsh...

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AskarBazar
AskarBazar
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My way to distinguish 'pobre' from 'peor' and not to confuse them is to associate them as follows: Pobre - POVERty Peor - PEJORative

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/annieternity

Mine says 'she is worse than I'm' which is not correct. I or me would be acceptable.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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That's an interesting point. I agree that I'm is not correct, but I am would work (the am is normally just implied) But I don't think that I ever learned any rules as to when you cannot contract I am to I'm. So I am sure that the computer program probably wasn't programmed with any rules to know it doesn't work. It's just something that a native speaker would not do.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Susan624474

I. She is worse than I.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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Yes. All we grammar nerds appreciate that some people still understand the rule. And it will help you in learning new languages. If your correct answer was not accepted, report it every time. But although I entered college a grammar nerd, I left a linguist. Linguistics is a descriptive discipline not a prescriptive one. As a word is coined and used in print a bit it is added to the dictionary, and when a grammar rule is broken more than honored, it slips from the grammar book. And assuming you are among the vast majority of English speakers who do not use thou (except maybe in church) you understand that language changes almost like a living thing. I still use the correct case myself and when I edit someone's writing, which I am often asked to do. I think it is productive to global communication to drag your feet to slow the change. But Duo has a greater responsibility to reflect the language as it is actually spoken by most people. Unfortunately that means that than me will have higher billing than than I and you probably won't find whom at all.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mari745497

Duolingo now says the correct translation is "She is worse than I'm." So I'd say ya'll have thoroughly confused it.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Willow694387

Mine said the correct answer was "She is worse than I'm". Lol. Next time I will just say she is worse than I am.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Area517

She is worse than I'm?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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She is worse than I am, or the implied version like the Spanish She is worse than I are both more traditionally grammatically correct than she is worse than me. Using the contraction at the end is basically a programming error. It's not too surprising. I have had a fair amount of grammar education but I don't remember any rule I learned that would make it wrong, it just makes my native language skills very uncomfortable. A computer has to be programmed to know it is wrong.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DheerajAnna

But i thought the Spanish word for 'me'(m-ee) is 'me'(m-eh). Why isn't it used here?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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The Spanish rule here is the same as the English rule that dinasaurs like I learned. This is in effect a shortened version of saying She is worse than I am. The am is implied. But that demonstrates that I is the nominative case (e.g subject case) Only when you have an object do you have me. The ball hit him and then me. You won't hear a lot of English speakers using this in everyday conversation, but people who write any formal papers will probably still say it this way. But I don't believe it is changing in Spanish at all.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Ahleina1

Omg!! Why are you all writing essays!!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Morgan851957

She is pretty bad

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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¿Eres tan mal?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Armaan855444

Isn't worse a comparative, an assertion which would render the end grammatically correct?

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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If you are asking if que yo is grammatically correct, yes it is. It is, or at least used to be, the same in English. She is worse than I. But few people say this any more, so descriptive Linguistics probably would not probably recognize it as a current rule. It does remain so in most other European languages however.

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/skiyrround

Why is "than" me use que, but in another exercise "I have more money than him" the answer is "Tengo tanto dinero como el".. it uses "como" as the "than"? How do you know which one to use?

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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Como isn't than, it is as. Tanto... como is used in comparisons if equality. He has AS MUCH (tanto) money As (como) I. Ella es tanto mal como él. She is as bad as he is.

Que is used in comparisons of inequality. Él es más grande que ella. He is bigger than she is. Esa casa es más vieja que la mía. That house is older than mine.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Gregorio_Blanco

She is worse than me am. No bueno

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LynePar1
LynePar1
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i tryed with me it wanted Yo

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lynettemcw
lynettemcw
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Yes. In Spanish it has to be yo. Actually I am old enough to know that it used to be I in English as well. People used to be taught that the sentence meant than I am, but the am was assumed but omitted. This is one of the many features of English grammar that has changed or is in the process of changing,which explains the translation shown. But it is certainly one place where understanding the old rules helps with learning another European language.

4 months ago