1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Spanish
  4. >
  5. "What do the men drink?"

"What do the men drink?"

Translation:¿Qué beben los hombres?

March 19, 2013

This discussion is locked.


Serious question: If "Qué beben los hombres" means what do the men drink, then how would I say "what drinks the men?"


You would switch the roles around


Yes, "what drinks the men" would be something like ¿Qué bebe a los hombres?


Luis, you mean beben?


No. In this case "what" is singular, so you use "bebe" (because "what" is doing the drinking).


This person was asking about the question "What drinkS the men?" (with an "s"). It's a very weird scenario, but it would be something like a monster drinking the men.


Why is "¿Qué los hombres beben?" incorrect?


Spanish order in the sentence is not the same as English. In some cases it might, but generally it isn't.

[deactivated user]

    How do I know where the verb is supposed to go?


    In spanish, questions go in this order: Questioning word, Verb, Subject


    Same for German.


    So when do you say hacer? (Which is "do" which is not used in the correct version.)


    I'm just learning, so this is a guess, but I'm going to take a shot at it.

    I would say you'd use hacer when "do" is the main verb in the sentence. "Do" isn't really the verb here, "drink" is. "Do" is more implied by the question word. I would think you'd use hacer in sentences where there's no other verb, like "The men do math."

    Again, that's just my thought. I hope someone who knows more will come along and correct or confirm!


    Cuáles also means what, so there is a discrepancy. Unless someone can explain why it should not be accepted


    Cuáles is plural and doesn't go with hombres but with what the men are drinking, this is quite neutral. Also, cuáles implies a choice: On the table, which are your pens? En la mesa, cuáles son tus plumas?


    Why is "¿los hombres qué beben?" incorrect?


    zelgy, your sentence means «The men what they drink?». It isn't technically wrong, but it is really strange. «Qué beben los hombres» means «What do the men drink?»


    Why is ¿Qué toman los hombres? correct? I said beben and I don't know what toman means.


    Toman is the present plural third person (ellos/ellas/ustedes) conjugation of the verb tomar which is "to take" or "to drink". My wife's first language is Spanish (Latin America) and she explained to me that certain types of drinks are commonly used with beber (such as water or milk) and others primarily with tomar. I'm not sure which are which yet, but it may be that both are technically correct with one being more common. Sounds like a cultural issue and I imagine it might differ from region to region or maybe Spain to Latin America. Not sure.


    I'm a native Spanish speaker. Both tomar and beber are correct, but in certain countries one is more common than the other.


    I answered "¿Que es los hombres beben?" I partly understand why that's wrong but can someone lay it out for me?


    Firstly, Qué es means "what is" so the es should not be there. Second, for questions, the typical word order is [question word] [verb] [subject], so it is ¿Qué beben los hombres? and not ¿Qué los hombres beben?


    Why is "¿cuál beben los hombres?" incorrerct? From my understanding "cuál" also means "what".


    Cual is "which"


    cuál is also supposed to mean "what". can someone explain the difference and when do i use each?


    I ask you: what do you eat? = ¿qué comes? If I see you in front of an assortment of desserts, I could ask you, ¿cuál postre vas a comer? Here I want to know which one you will choose among others.


    ¿qué los hombres beben? Why is this wrong?


    Sentence structure makes it incorrect. The verb follows the questioning word and then the subject.


    What does "toman" mean?


    The verb tomar can mean "to take", "to drink", or sometimes "to eat".

    Toman is the third person plural of tomar, for ellos/ellas/ustedes.

    Learn Spanish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.