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"There remains no food."

Translation:No queda comida.

0
5 years ago

16 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/JamonSerrano

The sentence being translated - "There remains no food" - is poor English. It should be "There is no food left". Or "no food remains".

7
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/megustamivida

Yes, it is very awkward and unnatural. Who comes up with these things?

0
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kathycaribe

no hay mas comida. What is wrong with that?

5
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rosythorn

i agree no hay mas comida also sounds right to me

0
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/bn_leon
bn_leon
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you are saying there is no more food.Within context it's correct but in translation it's not it should be more like there none left. I hope this helped, I also got it wrong.

3
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mitaine56

kathy- there,s no reference for más in the sentence, but in another sentence, it could mean the same.

0
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/itay_bi
itay_bi
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"No queda ninguna comida" -

Can it be also correct, or even a better translation ?

5
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jindr004
jindr004
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This is another answer that is right for the context, but not as a translation of the given phrase. With "No queda ninguna comida" means that "there is not any more food remaining", or "there is not any food remaining at all", which is adding to the sentence things that are not there.

2
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlanProbando

I think so too, and will submit the suggestion to Duolingo. Googling the sentence finds real Spanish examples.

0
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/fichee333

In english it sounds poor. But not in spanish.

5
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/StacyBursuk

"No comida queda" did not work and I'm not sure why.

2
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LindaHill

Although the meaning is the same, the syntax (word order) of the Spanish sentence is different. The verb "queda" comes before the direct object "comida." When you translated it, you put the object in the subject position. In Spanish, the understood "there" is a placeholder in the spot where the subject should be. English has placeholders as well, such as the words "there" and "it." For example, consider the sentences: It is good food. There are the apples. See:

http://oald8.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/dictionary/placeholder

In Spanish, the "no" modifies the verbs, not the nouns. So Spanish speakers say "There is not food." They do not say "There is no food." With the word "quedar," Spanish speakers use "there" as a placeholder. They do not use "it as a placeholder because the word "it" can be understood as the subject of "queda."

4
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/xabackus

Report a problem does not work.

2
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/josephschommer

is 'No Sobras Comida' correct?

0
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/xabackus

It should be

0
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/anya.eamon

Why is 'no queda nada comida' not correct?

0
Reply4 years ago