"There remains no food."

Translation:No queda comida.

March 19, 2013

16 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JamonSerrano

The sentence being translated - "There remains no food" - is poor English. It should be "There is no food left". Or "no food remains".

February 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/megustamivida

Yes, it is very awkward and unnatural. Who comes up with these things?

June 10, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kathycaribe

no hay mas comida. What is wrong with that?

June 2, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rosythorn

i agree no hay mas comida also sounds right to me

July 13, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/bn_leon

you are saying there is no more food.Within context it's correct but in translation it's not it should be more like there none left. I hope this helped, I also got it wrong.

February 3, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mitaine56

kathy- there,s no reference for más in the sentence, but in another sentence, it could mean the same.

May 3, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/itay_bi

"No queda ninguna comida" -

Can it be also correct, or even a better translation ?

October 28, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jindr004

This is another answer that is right for the context, but not as a translation of the given phrase. With "No queda ninguna comida" means that "there is not any more food remaining", or "there is not any food remaining at all", which is adding to the sentence things that are not there.

May 2, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AlanProbando

I think so too, and will submit the suggestion to Duolingo. Googling the sentence finds real Spanish examples.

February 3, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/fichee333

In english it sounds poor. But not in spanish.

February 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/StacyBursuk

"No comida queda" did not work and I'm not sure why.

September 7, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LindaHill

Although the meaning is the same, the syntax (word order) of the Spanish sentence is different. The verb "queda" comes before the direct object "comida." When you translated it, you put the object in the subject position. In Spanish, the understood "there" is a placeholder in the spot where the subject should be. English has placeholders as well, such as the words "there" and "it." For example, consider the sentences: It is good food. There are the apples. See:

http://oald8.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/dictionary/placeholder

In Spanish, the "no" modifies the verbs, not the nouns. So Spanish speakers say "There is not food." They do not say "There is no food." With the word "quedar," Spanish speakers use "there" as a placeholder. They do not use "it as a placeholder because the word "it" can be understood as the subject of "queda."

December 21, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/xabackus

Report a problem does not work.

March 7, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/josephschommer

is 'No Sobras Comida' correct?

March 19, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/xabackus

It should be

March 7, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/anya.eamon

Why is 'no queda nada comida' not correct?

May 11, 2014
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