"It is open during February."
Translation:Está abierto durante febrero.
Because the gender of "it" is unknown, while abiertA is only used for feminine nouns.
Does the noun to which "abierta" refers have to be spoken? Or can it just be known? For instance, if "está abierto" is referring to una tienda and the speaker is pointing at it,, does the "abierto" change to "abierta" just because someone is pointing at the store?
I put "lo" at the start and was marked incorrect. Why?
I mean, i get that you can omit it, but i wouldn't have thought you had to. Should I report it?
"Lo" is an object not a subject. If you said something like "I opened it", you could use "lo", but if you said, "it opened", you wouldn't.
The exception may be if there is some sort of reflexive thing in which the subject performs an action on itself.
I'm very much a learner, so take the above with a grain of salt. Spanish seems similar to French in this aspect, and that's how it is in French, anyway.
You are correct, KathyPeter6. Lo, la, os, nos, los, and las are the direct object pronouns that respectively mean him/it, her, you (plural), us, and them. Le, os, nos, and les are indirect object pronouns that respectively mean him/her/it, you (plural), us, and them.
Espanolisto, the Spanish null subject "it" has no written form. Spanish null subjects are "understood" and elliptical the same way that the subject of an English command, such as "Stop!" is understood to be "you" but at the same time is never written or spoken. "Lo" is not a Spanish subject pronoun. Instead, "lo" is a Spanish object pronoun.