"¿Qué tienen que comprar para la fiesta?"

Translation:What do you need to buy for the party?

8 months ago

17 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/MasterYods
MasterYods
  • 22
  • 7
  • 6
  • 5
  • 315

'What do they have to buy for the party?' should also be accepted.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Victorcarrera0

What do they have to buy for the party? Accepted now May 14 2018.

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/divot5

Needs to be "need to". Have to...need to...god bless our cult of American "over size everything". Snort.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Didi366934

I thought thats what they would ask for, otherwise we would have had to use "necessitar" right

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Beto330368

Tienen... is third person plural (They Have) not first person singular (Tengo). So, what's up Duo?

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MasterYods
MasterYods
  • 22
  • 7
  • 6
  • 5
  • 315

I'm assuming Duo intends for us to use plural you - 'ustedes tienen' - in this case. But obviously 'they' works as well.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/milrecan
milrecan
  • 25
  • 2
  • 286

why is this tienen and not necesitan

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Tener means "to have," and necesitar means "to need/to require."

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/scotologic

they still not accepted 3/1/18. Reported.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Bruce768614

"What must they buy for the party."
Duo refused it.
Just a few exercises back they accepted "must" for "tener que". http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/must

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

I too translated "tienen que" colloquially as "must." I was marked wrong, and the "correct" translation offered was "What do they've to buy for the party?" Naturally, I reported that the "correct translation" was incorrect. DL appears to be rejecting the colloquial translation of "must" for "tiene que." Have we been using it wrong all these years? I'm downvoting this sentence at the top of this page because I know no other way to get the moderators' attention in order to let them know that established colloquial translations are being rejected.

(I have just discovered that when you downvote a sentence like this at the top of the page, you get another page like this with new comments added to the ones you just reviewed. Accordingly, I reread the page and added additional comments and some amendments to my older comments, such as this one.)

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dads.Spanish

My translation: What have they to buy for the party?, is not accepted, just don't understand why, they suggest I add the word got: what have they got to buy...Tener que means have to???

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

"Got" was suggested as a synonym for "buy" in this sentence, Dads.Spanish, because the English words "get" and buy" have overlapping meanings in the sense that they both can mean "purchase."

More to the point, "tener que" literally means "have to." If you want to use "What have they" as the beginning of your interpretation, you need to add the word "got," as in "What have they got to buy/get for the party?" Some people dislike the word "got" because it's a regionalism and it's a matter of personal style not to use it. Better to stick to the literal meaning of "need to" or "must" for "tener que," and use "What must they buy/get for the party." The advantage of using the colloquial interpretation "must" is that you don't need to add the verb "got," whose Spanish counterpart does not appear anywhere in the original Spanish sentence. Besides, using "got" is far less elegant and thus offensive in some areas of the English-speaking world.

It is standard English everywhere to use "do" as the modal verb when asking a question in English simple present tense. Some English-speaking regions of the word do substitute the perfect tense helping verb "have" for the helping verb "do." For example, you might hear "Have you any money?" rather than "Have you got any money?" or "Do you have any money?". Unless the verb in question is "have" (tienes), this is a universally understood interpretation and a perfectly acceptable one. However, if "have" is the main verb of the compound verb, using "do" as the helping verb is unavoidable in a translation because a verb cannot be both its own helping verb and the main verb. In other words, in English it is an illegal sentence construction to write "Have you have any money?" or "Have have you any money?"

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FHB2x6Z8

Can somebody explain why teinen for need to.

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

See my reply above about colloquial translations.

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andrea363597

Still no explanation

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Cronan3
Cronan3
  • 25
  • 100

Is this correct??????

2 months ago
Learn Spanish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.