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  5. "La fiesta te va a gustar."

"La fiesta te va a gustar."

Translation:You are going to like the party.

February 25, 2018



Is 'Te va a gustar la fiesta?' also correct?


Let me clarify! Seem to have answered two people. YES to PuzzleOz, that is perfectly ok, in fact more normal I think.

EmmaMitch: NO! You are completely wrong the subject of gustar is still the party - that is GOING TO (va a) please (gustar) - its just a bit more complicated.


No. It's "te vas a gustar la fiesta", because "going" agrees with "you" this time.


"La fiesta te va a gustar."----the party, you is going to please (the party is going to please you). ´te´is always the object (being pleased and NOT doing the pleasing)


So, little by little this future tense is reaching us, without a warning...


We already studied the future tense with the verb it. If you select a topic of your choice, you can see the test out icon and the information icon which explains everything.

But maybe duo has changed in the last 7 months


Chihuahua Fan, Did you mean "the verb ir"? (Autocorrect no habla español!)


Thank you all who have contributed to a very enlightening discussion! For me, it's not as much about getting the "right" answer as it is understanding the underlying principles to be able to apply them more broadly. That is an area where I think Duo lacks, and these discussions really help connect the dots.


why is "va" instead of "vas" being used


Because the party is doing the thing here, not you. Remember that gustar doesn't work like "to like" in English, but rather like "to please". "The party is going to please you" - "La fiesta va a gustarte."


Thanks, RyagonIV. Remembering that gustar is more closely related to "to please," than to "to like" makes all the difference. It's the difference between translating as, "the party, you it is going to like, " & "the party, you it is going to please." Very different meanings.


The party you are going to like was marked wrong. WHY?


That is not a proper sentence structure in English. It sounds like something Yoda would say (placing the object in front of the subject), or like a relative clause, as in "This is the party you are going to like." But the Spanish sentence here is a complete, grammatical sentence, you just have to shuffle around some words to make it fit into the English mould.


Sorry but " this is the party you are going to like" is a perfectly valid and grammatically correct sentance in English.


Yes, it is. But the sentence you presented in your initial question isn't.


I agree with you. If I was wanting to say" this is the party that you are going to like" in Spanish would the following be correct" esta es la fiesta que te va a gustar"


Yes, that would be a correct translation.


why I just can't figure out what te+va is! te is you and va is for el/ella! can anyone explain it please?


It's not so much "te + va" here, but rather "te + gustar". Remember that gustar works less like "to like", and more like "to please"; the party is the subject here.

  • La fiesta va a gustarte. - The party is going to please you. = You are going to like the party.


i get it now... thank you for explaining


But I gave "The party is going to please you." and it was counted wrong. Why? It sounds a little stiff in English but I don't think it is grammatically wrong in English.

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Just because it's okay grammatically doesn't mean it's a good way to translate it. No one really talks that way in English. And as you say, it's stiff and stuffy, which means that's a different register than the sentence given in Spanish, and you always want to translate in the same register as you're given. "My mother" is "mi madre", "my mommy" is "mi mami".


The word order doesnt make sense. The fiesta is going to like me? Illogical.


The party is going to please you is a better "translation", but in English, it's normally expressed as "you are going to like the party".


Karel, have you really reached this pount and not come across the form, that seems backwards to us, of me gusta el vestido, say. Literally as Sara poi tsvout The dress pleases me but we translate as I like the dress. You must have seen something like that by now. Maybe you, or anyone else puzzled, are thrown by the extra bit "..va a ...gustar" = is going to please ie you are going to like it.


Why is "The party is going to please you" wrong ? My guess it is correct but it isn't in the app algorithms for correct answers


Abdullah, that translation is correct in principle, but I don't think "to please" is a very good translation for gustar. It's just used as an aid for nailing down the grammar.


for me it sounds more like: The party is going to like you


It is confusing but you need to remember that, with gustar, the person doing the liking is always the object - not the subject - of the sentence, so the verb is conjugated according to the thing being liked (because it is "pleasing" the object). Spanish sentences can be quite flexible with word order, and the object can go either before or after the verb. If it was the subject of the sentence, it would be "A la fiesta" but that would never occur as a party is unable to like something!


I got object and subject the wrong way around in the last half. Doh! See, it is confusing (and Christmas tiredness!!)


John, Translate "gustar" to "to please", not"to like". It will make more sense then. Otherwise, you've got it!


Is "te va a gustar" in this sentence referring to the party or to you? In other words, is it sentence saying you are going to like the party, or that the party is going to like you?


I believe niegther( I still new to this so i might not use the correct definition and i might not be correct on this explaintion), But i believe the verb gustar often mean "to please" so it should be" The party is going to please you ". (The party is doing the pleasing not really liking You) . Here a complete break down of the sentence "la fiesta"≈(the party) "te"≈"to you"( a reflective or indirect object [not sure gustar is often reflective] ) "va"≈(it is going) a≈"to" gustar≈(to please). Tgat gives you " the party to you it is going to please" Then you have modify it a little because word for word translate doesn't work here.


I am a little confused by the word order. Is there a hard & fast rule for this? Also, would "vas gustar la fiesta" work as well?


You need to remember that the main verb, gustar doesn't work like "to like" in English. Rather, it's closer to "to please". So you get the sentence "The party is going to please you" - "La fiesta te va a gustar", with va conjugated to match "la fiesta", and the pronoun te for the object "you".


This is a good example why word for word translate doesn't work. The rules to this is very complicated and i am still trying to learn but i pretty sure i got the basic.

The basics is this you should be able to tell witch objects of a sentence are equivalent and just modify the sentences you know and not worry about the word order. Replace noun with noun verb with verb etc.

A more detailed explanation

In this sentence it is very important to tell apart these 3 things:

1.)The direct object (when the object of the sentence is doing the action)(wich can be("lo","la","te",etc.)

2.)The indect object ("le" sometimes "se"[ if the direct object is"la"],"te" etc.)


3.) The reflective pronoun("se","te","me") the reflective pronoun when the object is talking about itself

These 3 go before the verb in this case("va" or in it's infinitive form "ir") and must never be separated.

It is possible to have both direct and indirect object but would have to look up the order to be sure so i am not going to write it here.


1.)The direct object (when the object of the sentence is doing the action)(wich can be("lo","la","te",etc.)

Objects never do actions, that's what the subject role is for. Rather, direct objects are the immediate sufferes of an action. In "I see that girl", the girl experiences my seeing, so she is the direct object.

The order for object pronouns is form-based, luckily. They always appear in this relative order:

  1. se
  2. te, os (2nd-person pronouns)
  3. me, nos (1st-person pronouns)
  4. lo, la, los, las, le, les (the remaining 3rd-person pronouns)

¿Por qué te me lo llevaste? - Why did you take it from me?


"¿Por qué te me lo llevaste?"

Several things are confusing me in this sentence and your explanation of the order of object pronouns.

  1. I was thinking you was the subject of the sentence until a little research revealed the pronominal verb 'llevarse' means to take. That explains the use of 'te' instead of 'tú.' (I still haven't wrapped my brain around pronominal verbs use as a larger set containing reflexive verbs.)

  2. Order. Doesn't 'te' come first because it is a reflexive pronoun in this sentence? Then the inirect object pronoun, 'me,' comes before the direct object pronoun, 'lo.' If we change the sentence to: "Why did we take it from you?" = "¿Por qué nos te lo llevamos?"


Foodfreak, well is still the subject of the sentence, but it's also the pronominal object.

"We took it from you" would be "Te nos lo llevamos." Ultimately it doesn't really matter how you think about the pronoun order. Using llevarse in this way is pretty archaic, and with other verbs where you have two human objects it's more common to use just one object pronoun and mould the other into a prepositional object instead. So instead of:

  • Te me acerqué. - I approached you.
  • Te me acercaste. - You approached me.

you'll more often find:

  • Me acerqué a ti.
  • Te acercaste a mí.

The reason I keep talking about this se-te-me-le order is because I find it a lot easier to just look at the shape of the words instead of trying to figure out which role they play. Also it's the order given by the RAE, which you can find in this document in section 4.


I was really thrown by this one i did catch the "va"("you" formal) and "te"("you" informal) difference and was wondering why the sentence was "the party you are going to leave to please") now i know that not the case.

This sentence really show the importance of knowing the formal from informal.

It also shows a new way of using gastar does anyone know if this is reflective or not?


Gustar is generally not reflexive unless someone likes themself. "Va a gustar" is conjugated to agree with the subject "la fiesta", and the object pronoun te refers to you.


I was tempted to write VAS in the answer but could not hear the S in the speaker's voice. I thought VAS went with TE. Is there a rule I should understand?


Vas goes with , but not necessarily with te.

"Tú vas" means "you are going", but that won't work here because of gustar. Remember that gustar rather works like "to please" instead of "to like". Where you say in English "You are going to like the party", in Spanish it's rather "The party is going to gustar you."


I couldn’t get why it was va and not vas but now I see the form of ir “va” refers to la fiesta and not “te”. At least that’s my theory!


Yes, that's exactly right. "La fiesta" is the subject of this sentence and so it determines the form of the verb, va in this case. Te is always an object, so te never determines the verb form.


The party is going to please you.


I'm having trouble understanding why "The party, you are going to like it", was marked wrong.


Bell, the Spanish sentence is a single clause here, complete with subject ("la fiesta"), object ("te") and verb ("va a gustar"). There is no comma split here and the fiesta is not artificially separated from the rest of the sentence. That means your translation should follow this pattern and also not have a comma in it.


Why is "Te vas a gustar la fiesta" not correct?


Could I write

"La fiesta va a gustarte"? If not, why would it be wrong? Thank you :)


You will like the party you are going to is absolutely correct english and means the same.


It is correct English, but it doesn't quite mean the same, and it is not a correct translation of the sentence.

You will like the party or You are going to like the party
but not
You will like the party you are going to

That would need something like:
Te va a gustar la fiesta a la que vas a ir


Why "you going to enjoy the party " is wrong?


If that's actually what you wrote you left out a word: "are"

As in, "You are going to enjoy the party."

However, you may also have been marked incorrect for using "enjoy," which would normally be translated using the verb disfrutar instead of gustar. Gustar is more equivalent to "like".


Crazy - it should be " Te va a gustar la fiesta?"


It's not crazy, it's flexible. You can say it either way:

La fiesta te va a gustar
Te va a gustar la fiesta

Because gustar is a reverse verb (generally understood as an "it pleases me" form), the first format above would be like saying in English, "the party, it is going to please you."

So there's nothing wrong with this format in Spanish as it makes complete sense given how verbs like gustar work.

Don't force another language into the constructs of yours.


what is wrong with using lo instead of a derivasion of the word go!!!!!!!!!

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Because you're saying "You it to like the party" instead of "You are going to like the party". That just doesn't make any sense in either language.


Think like Yoda on these sentences. I just figured out the syntax.


I answered: "you will like the party" and got it wrong !! Reported (2.12.20)

  • 2559

"You will like the party" is accepted. You might have had a typo or something in the answer you submitted.


Perhaps because that would be a different tense (indicative future maybe), and not the simple future expressed by using ir + a + infinitive.


"You're gonna like the party", too slang I guess...?


I was able to translate the sentence into English, only because i knew the words and figured a way to make a sentence! But, how in the world do the words come out in this order please? La fiesta te va a gustar. You are going to like the party. It starts with The party! Thank you for your help!

  • 2559

It's literally "The party is going to please you." See how it's "te" and not "tú", how it's "va" and not "vas"?


"the party that you are going to like" was not accepted! why? and "the party you are going to like" 24/5/19


"The party (that) you're going to like" is not a complete sentence, just a noun phrase, consisting of the noun "the party" and a relative clause that describes the party in more detail.

The Spanish sentence would need a relative clause marker in this case: "La fiesta que te va a gustar." Since it's not there in the original sentence, "the party is going to be the subject of the verb va*, so you'll end up with (a more literal) "The party is going to please you". Which in common English is "You are going to like the party."


The party is going to like you is what this says, isn't it?


No. I mean, come on, I realize some of Duo's statements aren't always the most sensical, but I've never seen a statement that ridiculous on here. What would that even mean?

It means this party will please you - aka, you are going to like this party.

  • 2559

Surely you've encountered verbs like gustar earlier in this course?

The party is going to please you, or You are going to like the party.


Why do you change the subject? In Italian it means: La festa ti piacerà? Why In English this is wrong?


What was your actual answer?


you will like the party youre gong to. same thing isnt it Not accepted


Not at all the same thing. Your statement is saying you will like the party you are going to attend.

The future part of this sentence refers to what you are going to feel, not the party. It's not saying, "You are going to go to this party AND you're going to like it". It's assuming the first part and simply making a statement about the second. "You're going to like the party."


You are and your are the same meaning!!!


You are = you're. "Your" is a possessive pronoun and an entirely different word.

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