"I don't need you now."
Translation:Yo no te necesito ahora.
DL corrects my answer "Yo no te necesito" by "Ya no te necesito". Is it because i forgot to translate "now"?
Is there a guide somewhere thay explains this syntax? Why does "no" come before "te" when it most directly modifies the verb?
no lo necesito = "I don't need you" (usted)
no los necesito = "I don't need you" (ustedes)
If the "you" is unambiguously female, then la(s) would replace lo(s).
No, grammar requires the clitic te to go before the verb, and after no when negating. There are situations where you can attach it to the verb (e.g., with infinitives). But when you don't, it must appear before the verb.