Translation:I am always at home after five.
The de here goes with después. You always need to say "después de" if you want to say that something is happening "after [something]".
Because it's not grammatically correct. We don't put adverb of frequency before the verb to be.
- I am always/frequently/often/never ... (correct)
- I always/frequently/often/never am ... (incorrect, even though widely used)
It is not the normal colloquial word order to put the "adverb of frequency" before the verb "to be," but occasionally very experienced writers do it in order to be dramatic. Like you, I would advise most writers not to do it, but it is not grammatically incorrect per se. Also, most native speakers will look at you oddly if you say "I always am at home after five."
This word order is unusual, even weird in standalone statements but fairly common in responses. I'm not sure if it's correct or not. eg. - You should be home by five. - I always am.
It´s ok, but it´s not exactly the sentense, this never said P.M. can be also A.M. and in most of the case in DL they never use numbers.
"En casa" is more accurately translated by "at home". Notice the lack of an article in both expressions.
Isn't cinco masculine? and singular? From what I understand numbers take on the form of the noun it is accompanying. OK, so in this case I get the feminine use of "cinco". But why "las". Why not just "la"? There is nothing else in this sentence that is plural. EDIT, It appears as though you do consistently use "las" but I would just like to find out why.
Numbers used as nouns are generally masculine and singular, yes. But the number is not used as a noun here.
The full phrase for expressing clock times in Spanish is "las [número] horas", so there's the plural-feminine part. Horas gets left out most of the time, but the article stays. Also note that "one o'clock" is "la una (hora)".
- I eat lunch at one o'clock. - Almuerzo a la una.
could you say "siempre estoy en la casa..." and if so, how does this impact the sentence?
You can say "en la casa", but that would usually be taken to mean "at the house (not necessarily yours)" instead of "at home".
GF is from colombia and she says it sounds weird to just say "siempre estoy en casa" without the "la"
What is the reasoning of putting siempre in front of estoy? Just wondering.
Adverbs are usually put in front of the word they modify, especially these adverbs of frequency. If you say "Estoy siempre en casa", that's alright as well, but sounds a bit like "always home" is a condition you're currently in.
Because if you put "siempre" implies that you always are at home at that hour, the 365 days of the year. In the other hand with just "estoy" can be only for that day.
Both the Spanish and English sound find to me. Which are you questioning?
Was it the comma I pressed by mistake. That,s,the only difference from your answer
JoanMaryCa, this is a discussion board. Unless you post your answer or you respond directly to another post using the 'REPLY' button... no one here will know who or what you are asking about.