"Why don't you wash your faces?"
Translation:¿Por qué no se lavan ustedes la cara?
I think it's because in English we say "faces" because we're talking to at least two people, so we see at least two faces.
In Spanish we say "cara" because each person has only one face
I also have this question, and don't really understand Marcy's answer.
I think it's just a language thing, Spanish just has the sentence like that. As she said, Spanish emphasizes the fact that each person has only one face, and therefore words the sentence like that, whereas English refers to all of the faces, and therefore uses the plural. That's just the way English and Spanish developed.
Is there a reason for the location of ustedes in this sentence? Does anywhere else work?
I thought the same thing but Basil989 below answers this question. "faces" in the sentence indicates plural
Yes, although Duolingo mostly uses the ‘ustedes’ form even for the informal plural.
The "se" comes before the "lavan". The rule for object pronouns (direct objects, indirect objects, reflexives) is that they have to go immediately before a conjugated verb.
If your sentence contains an additional verb form, like an infinitive or a present participle, then you have the choice to put the object pronoun before the conjugated verb or attached to the end of the infinitive or the present participle.
Se lavan la cara. (only a conjugated verb = only before)
Se van a lavar la cara. OR Van a lavarse la cara. (conjugated + infinitive = choice)
Se están lavando la cara. OR Están lavándose la cara. (Conjugated + present participle = choice)
Reflexive verbs usually use definite articles with parts of the body and clothing.
He washes his car. Él lava su carro.
He washes his face. Él se lava la cara.
See my response to lunzie about "caras."
If we say 'ustedes' (you in the plural), then why not 'caras'? In the question, in English, you have said 'faces'.
"Por que no te lavas las caras" is a CORRECT answer but DUO said its wrong. IT IS CORRECT DUO
I'm just pointing this out as a friend, but your very sentence contradicts itself. Your sentence translates to "Why don't you (singular) wash your faces?" I assume a singular person has only one face. So, a grammatically correct sentence would either be worded "Por qué no se lavan las caras" or "Por qué no te lavas la cara".
That is my question. It does not specify formal or not. Why it is not correct is confusing
Why is 'Por qué no os lavaís tu cara' not acceptable, ie using the informal second person plural, for children for example?
You incorrectly mixed second person plural with a second person singular possessive. Anyway, your sentence should read "¿Por qué no os laváis la cara?"
Can someone explain me the construction of this sentence? Inversion subject verb like in English?
In answer to katkiniowa and gondrini's comments I think the light bulb notes at the start of the lesson may help you and also in the discussion it is explained that "faces" (which is plural in English and therefore tells us that it is two people we are addressing) means in Spanish we have to translate using su not tu (and 'ustedes' if you like but I think it is not necessary here) Hope this helps. I have found this quite difficult but think I'm getting my head around it now
What tells you that this subject is plural? Since "la cara" applies to both singular and plural, I should be able to choose which I want to use!
FYI - Duo accepts "Por que vosotros no os lavais la cara" as correct 25th Aug 2019. I hope that this helps some understand the singulars and plurals!
WHY WHY WHY DOESN'T DUOLINGO TELL YOU IF THE SENTENCE IS PLURAL OR NOT! YOU CAN'T TELL IF IT IS IN ENGLISH WRITTING
" . . . faces." The s makes it plural and that is the clue. If the sentence wasn't referring to multiple faces of multiple people then what kind of nightmare horror story do you think it would be describing here?
Of course the English language can tell us when stuff is plural.