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A question about use of gustar with an without an infinitive and agreement with the direct object

Vajrin
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Sorry for the geeky grammar question but... do you drop the agreement with the direct object (DO) when you put in an infinitive verb after a gustar sentence e.g. A mi me gustan los pájaros vs. A mi me gusta ver los pájaros?

7 months ago

7 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/Chilotin
Chilotin
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In the second sentence, the agreement is with "ver" or the verb you like. Then, it is always singular, it only changes the tense and mood ("Me gustaría ver esos pájaros", "Me gustaban esos pájaros", etc.)

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Vajrin
Vajrin
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Many thanks. Have a lingot for your troubles. Wow - you are a polyglot by the looks of it!

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Chilotin
Chilotin
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You're welcome. I only speak Spanish, but I like learning languages and my written English is sufficient for communication. My spoken English is not bad, it is evil :P

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/b05aplmun.ca
b05aplmun.ca
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To be technically accurate, what you're identifying as direct objects in those sentences are actually the subjects.

The literal translation of "gustar" is not "to like," but "to be pleasing to." Your sample sentences translate literally as "The birds are pleasing to me" and "Seeing the birds is pleasing to me." Keeping this in mind may make it easier to figure out which conjugation to use when.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EL5tEL
EL5tEL
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Gracias. This is helpful to me!

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MrFrodo.

Pardon, perhaps you should post this in the Spanish forum. Just click 'edit' and choose 'Spanish' as the topic. You may find more direct help there :)

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Vajrin
Vajrin
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Thanks. Just getting used to posting.

7 months ago