Si + imperfect (indicative)????
Recently, I read in a book the sentence "si no lo lográbamos, él no nos aceptaría."
Why did the author choose to use the imperfect (not imperfect subjunctive) in this case? Is this correct usage?
Thank you for your help as I'm very confused. I thought that these situations always required the subjunctive imperfect.
I already answered this question. Imperfect subjunctive (simple forms) is not for past events but for future events considered past in the time frame of reference. "Si no lo lográramos" is only acceptable before you try, never after. However, "Si no lo hubiéramos logrado" is right for past situations. I'm really worried about "aceptaría"...