Si + imperfect (indicative)????
- 17
- 14
- 12
- 10
- 7
- 3
Recently, I read in a book the sentence "si no lo lográbamos, él no nos aceptaría."
Why did the author choose to use the imperfect (not imperfect subjunctive) in this case? Is this correct usage?
Thank you for your help as I'm very confused. I thought that these situations always required the subjunctive imperfect.
3 Comments
- 25
- 22
- 17
- 14
- 14
- 9
- 9
- 9
- 8
- 8
- 8
- 8
- 8
- 8
- 7
- 7
- 7
- 7
- 6
- 5
- 4
- 3
- 2
- 20
I already answered this question. Imperfect subjunctive (simple forms) is not for past events but for future events considered past in the time frame of reference. "Si no lo lográramos" is only acceptable before you try, never after. However, "Si no lo hubiéramos logrado" is right for past situations. I'm really worried about "aceptaría"...
- 12
- 7
- 6
It isn't particularly often that you meet people who speak in that way. Si no sobornamos al profesor no nos darán el titulo, conclusión: tenemos que sobornar al profesor.
- 18
- 17
- 15
- 14
- 14
- 12
- 10
- 9
- 6
- 5
- 2
- 35
It uses indicative because the sentence refers to a past action, it basically says (in other words) "If we didn't make it, he was not going to accept us". In this case "aceptaría" is not conditional, it's what we call "pospretérito" or the future in the past.