"va" means she, he, or it is going. Think of the whole sentence as "It is not going to please you," i.e. "You are not going to like it." Of course, it could be a he or she instead of an it, but in that case there would probably be a clarifying él or ella present.
Thank you, I was wondering why they used the él/ella/usted form of 'va' instead of the tú form of 'vas' but your comment explains it.
I tried that too ... it's not really all that idiomatic ... (AFAIK) that's just the literal translation.
Me as well! 10-Jan-19 "it is not going to please you" marked incorrect, why? Reported. Often the literal translation is clearer than DL´s and in this google translate agrees
If you want to emphasize "like him", you could say "Él no te va a gustar", "No te va a gustar él", "A él no te va a gustar", etc. Replace Él with Ella and it will mean "like her".
I'm confused about this. Usually when we tack "A mi/ti/él/someone's name" onto the beginning, it refers to the person who is doing the liking/not liking (the object). Can you confirm that it's correct to use it for the subject pronoun?
You're not going to like it should be " no se vas a gustar" while " no te va a gustar" told me te va a gustar" to me would be - he's not going to like you.
Struggling with this. I thought it meant "He is not going to like you." Could someone explain why this is wrong and how I would say this sentence in Spanish? Thanks!
Yes, I also translated this as "He is not going to like you" and I think it should be accepted. Google translate also accepts this. Reported to DUO 2/15/19
Oh Spanish. Sometimes it all just comes together and sometimes I have no freaking idea what I'm doing.
Agreed. I'm keep wondering when it's going to "click" --- I know it will, but is feeling like it's going to take forever :/
Seems to me this could be translated as "You are not going to be pleased." What's wrong with that?
I'm going to have trouble with this question. It is the first question I have been asked up to now when I had no idea how to translate it. I just typed a few letters, then hit submit. I'm sure DL is going to jump on this construction and drive me to distraction.
No te va a gustar = It is not going to please you = it + not + to you + going to + be pleasing to. Dios mío! Un rompecabezas!
grammar question -- in Spanish, does a reflexive object (like te) always precede the first verb (e.g., va) even though it refers to the second verb (gustar). I initially answered this "no va te gustar lo"
Yes any object pronoun not just a reflexive one goes before the conjugated verb (not the infinitive) eg no lo quiero comer - I do not want to eat IT. Note you can tag it on the end of the infinitive quiero comerlo or with a reflexive also nosotros vamos a quedarnos (we are going to stay) instead of ...nos vamos a quedar. By the way, "te" in this example is not reflexive it is simply the object of gustar, whom "it" (the subject) is or is not pleasing.
I was thinking the same, but ' It is not going to please you' which is almost the same...
Well....with this verb, it means "it is not going to please you." Te(you) is the indirect object and whatever isn't going to please you is (it/he/she) and is implied.
My brain does not compute this sentence! But I'll keep plodding on in the hope things make sense at some point!
Hi folks. I am curious. If I wanted to say "She is not going to like you" / "He is not going to like you", how would I say that in Spanish? Wouldn't "No te va a gustar" be a correct translation? I understand that I can add the clarifying él or ella, so "Ella no te va a gustar" or "Él no te va a gustar". So basically what I am asking is can't "No te va a gustar" also be translated as "She (or he) is not going to like you"? Please let me know. I appreciate your responses. Thanks!
This sounds like a subtle tribute to Douglas Adams and I approve of that. Forty two
If it's an informal sentence, why is -you ain't gonna like it - not accepted ?