"Summers here are always fun."
Translation:Los veranos aquí siempre son divertidos.
I would like to ask why veranos need los in front of it? Is it similar to los lunes los martes?
I believe the reason is that nouns at the beginning of sentence require an article
I think it is more that most usually as subject of tbe sentence the noun is being used in a generic way - in English we do not use the article ("the") - Dogs are dangerous, Libraries are educational, Breakfasts are essential... in each case in Spanish use Los or Las as appropriate. If not generalising statement eg I am drinking milk - no article: bebo leche.
My rationale, right or wrong, is that they are referring to more than 1 summer, thus los veranos.
Los veranos siempre son divertidos aquí. - This is what I put, and was marked incorrect. Many spanish sentences that I've seen have "aquí" at the end.
You know, the more of these I do, the more I begin to "get" the sense of the word order. The constant repetition is beginning to sink in!
my problem with duolingo is that in some instances it plays fast and loose with what is considered an acceptable translation, and other times it is extremely specific about the answer it wants. some of this can certainly be attributed to the subtleties of language and the fact that every language has its fair share of dumb rules, but as great as duolingo is it seems a bit inconsistent in how it enforces things.
Yes, certainly. When doing a Spanish exercise in English, I translated a sentence using the contraction don´t instead of do not. Usually, this is excepted, but it was not in this case for some reason. The rest of the sentence was exactly the same. I think part of this is attributed to the fact that several different people made these courses and each person would have their own personal opinions on what should be accepted and what should not be.
I did the same thing. I guess maybe because that would translate to the summers are always fun here instead of the Summers here are always fun. But if that is the case, i mean seriously, come on, they mean the same thing!
I used "estan" rather than "son" and it was accepted. Is it possible that they are both correct? If so, is there any difference in meaning between the two constructions?
If you do a web search, you will find large numbers of hits for both "están muy divertidos" and "son muy divertidos". I take it, both are possible, but unfortunately don't know the difference in meaning, if any.
I learnt the DOCTOR and PLACE rules for ser and estar, respectively. DOCTOR: Ser goes with Desciptions (names, nationalities, religious creed, physical descriptions...), Occupations (vocational, but also hobbies, "student" etc.), Characteristics (such as "intelligent", "wealthy", "handsome",...), Time specifications (such as "today is my birthday, it is one o'clock,...), Origin (such as "she is from Spain", "it is made of wood",...), Relationships ("she is my mother", "she is your boss",...).
PLACE: Estar goes with Positions (such as "seated", "upright", "bent over"), Locations ("in front of the hotel", "at a theatre performance",...), Actions (= with present participles), Conditions (such as "tired", "ill", "energetic"...), Emotions ("happy", "angry",...).
There is obviously some overlap between these categories (is "angry" an emotion or a condition?), therefore, "divertido" may possibly be considered a 'condition' to go with estar, or a 'characteristic' to go with ser – but that is merely a guess from my side.
Estan comes from the verb "estar" and son comes from the verb "ser"
While both verbs mean "to be", estar is used for temporary things like moods, locations, etc. Ser js used for permanant things like ones job, their name etc.
Im not particularly sure why both would be allowed, but i hope this helped anyway :-)
I used estan too but mine was marked wrong. Even after many years and thinking about each situation carefully I still get it wrong...
Estan was accepted for me, I was very uncertain, but opted that aqui would reference a specific location in the sentence. I see that "son" is the suggested solution - it would be nice to have a rule of thumb on what takes precedence in these situations, because they cannot just be that interchangable, can they?
Fun is describing the plural 'summers', which requires a plural agreement by adding an 's' at the end of divertido. I am kind of getting it, but similar to masculin and feminin matching agreement I often forget. Practice Practice.
It depends on the grammatical gender of the thing being 'fun': Los veranos, male gender --> divertidos. In a parallel Duolingo phrase, "Las tardes con amigos son divertidas": Las tardes, female gender --> divertidas.
Why was "siempre" left out of the translation? Yes, I understand that the statement implies a general truth, i.e., summers at the beach are fun. I don't think that should give the translator the license to omit the word. It is a question of emphasis.
I'm not sure what you mean. In the preferred answer above, I see both "always" and "siempre". Was it missing when you did the sentence? If so, they probably fixed it if you reported it.
Second appearance of the question. This time I omitted the siempre, thinking to please Duo, and I was marked wrong.
I've had this sort of thing happen a few times. Occasionally, when you get answer wrong, it will mark the wrong part wrong. I'm not quite sure how their error checking works, but you probably just used an incorrect word somewhere else and it messed up its correction.
English doesn't need the article in this situation, but Spanish does. That's just the way it works.
What I mean by this is that to express in Spanish the thought that the English sentence is expressing, the Spanish sentence uses the definite article.
While the and el/la/los/las may both be definite articles (thus being "the same" in some sense), they don't get used in exactly the same circumstances (thus not being "the same" in a different, but still important sense)
I can accept that Spanish is different and it needs the article Los, but I don't know why and when I need it when clearly it is not used in English, such as in this sentence. Any advice on where I should reading to understand the rule on this so I don't make this mistake again?
If the subject of the sentence is something in general, we don’t use “the” in English, but they do use “los”or “las” in Spanish. So in English we would say, “”Pineapples are nutritious,” or “Cats are smaller than cows.” But in Spanish these sentences would begin, “Las piñas” or “Los gatos”.
Never saw the word "aca" (with accent on 2nd a) before. I used "aqui" (with accent on i) but it was not accepted as correct.
I thought it should read ...son siempre divertidos. Not sure why 'are' goes after 'always'.
I'm not really sure yet and have similar questions (e.g. see Q below), but it may be because here 'Summer' is used in reference with a "long-form of possession". See #6 in this explanation: https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/using-the-definite-article-in-spanish
Why is siempre behind son but not divirtidos? Also, los isn't necessary behind veranos, right?
Im not sure about weather "los" is needed, but as for the position of "siempre" and "Divertidos", Adjectives (like "Divertidos") often go after the noun in spanish, whereas "siempre" typically goes before the noun. Hope this helped :)