"My mom always buys me dolls."
Translation:Mi mamá siempre me compra muñecas.
why isn't "las" needed here in front of "munecas"? As I understand it, if you make a general statement like this one you'd add a definite article
If you were making a statement about dolls, so they were the subject in geberal not specific ones, in English we would say "Dolls are...." but it then in Spanish we say ("LAS muñecas son..."). Tbe generality in this sentence is mum's buying habits, she isnt buying dolls in general.
what we learned for 'dolls' and what is given as correct here is 'munecas' but hints doesn't give it and only lists 'guapas'
The same kind of difference between saying "mother" and "mom" in English. One is more casual
Ha! 'One is more casual' sounds like the Queen speaking (or is, probably incorrectly, supposed to speak). 'Mom/mum is more casual' reads better.
why is the word "doll" use so much? I was in Spain two weeks, and never heard it once. Wouldn't more useful words be more helpful?
No, i think. Siempre as an adverb? always appears before the conjugated verb ( single or combined). 'se' is not needed here. if you are trying to ssay 'my mom always buys herself dolls' then you would write/say 'mi mama siempre se compra munecas' and the seconnd mi is not needed.