"My mom always buys me dolls."
Translation:Mi mamá siempre me compra muñecas.
why isn't "las" needed here in front of "munecas"? As I understand it, if you make a general statement like this one you'd add a definite article
If you were making a statement about dolls, so they were the subject in geberal not specific ones, in English we would say "Dolls are...." but it then in Spanish we say ("LAS muñecas son..."). Tbe generality in this sentence is mum's buying habits, she isnt buying dolls in general.
The same kind of difference between saying "mother" and "mom" in English. One is more casual
Its because it is phrased as 'buys me dolls' rather than 'buys dolls for me'.
Isn't "mi mamá siempre compra munecas para mi" an acceptable way of saying this?
why "unos" celulares in the previous question but only "munecas" without the unas in this question? Confusing.
I don't know the context of your previous question, but in this sentence I'd say it's because the word "some" is not in the English version.
what we learned for 'dolls' and what is given as correct here is 'munecas' but hints doesn't give it and only lists 'guapas'