What's the difference in meaning if I had said, "Esta un gato debajo de la cama"?
It's sort of like ser/estar are "=" and haber is "∃". I'm sure that'll be helpful to about 3 people and confusing to everyone else.
Count me among the confused. I would not say that ser and estar are equal, although they both can be translated as "to be" in English. And I admit my ignorance as to what a backwards capital "E" is ...
thanks. Sounds like something learned many years ago, but since forgotten. And if I had really thought about it, I could have found a way to google it even if I couldn't figure out how to type the symbol. :-)
haha nice. to make things worse, semantics would commonly mark ser/estar with the symbol "is an element of". (can't paste the symbol here) http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/set e.g, "he is a cat" means he is a member in the set of cats
Hola pchou: That would not make sense. That would mean "This a cat under the bed".
As far as I can tell, you can only start a sentence with "est`a" when the subject is not stated directly ("null subject"). It would supposedly mean that someone "is" a cat under the bed, but in that case you should use "es" and not "esta". If you mean a cat is under the bed, then "un gato" has to come first. So the syntax is incorrect any way.
Why not "....gato bajo de la cama"? I have seen BAJO seemingly used for "under/underneath. I see the answer for this question below but it confuses me. What does the responder mean by saying DEBAJO is more idiomatic?
my answer is there a cat under the bed,was equally as correct as the answer given here. The word "hay" can mean "is there" "are there" "there is" "there are" given the correct intonation of speech.
It shouldn't be. Because if you start a sentence with "Is" in English, it's generally a question. The presented sentence is not a question.
Hola Conisbrough and Deltido: Deltido is correct. It would have to be a question if it starts with "IS".
Can one use "debajo" as a preposition too, as one can with the English equivalent?