In question that contain a question word, the standard order is that the question word comes first, then the conjugated verb, then the subject. So for instance:
- ¿Por qué no nos escuchan los maestros?
Subject pronouns have a bit more leeway, though. They are frequently put between the interrogative and the verb, but you could put ellos at the end here as well. Or in front of the question word if you feel adventurous.
It's possible to use "to hear" with the same meaning as "to listen" in English, but it's a rare use. "Hear me (on)" = "Listen to me."
If you're just talking about the ability to hear (for example because it's noisy), you'd normally add "can" in the English sentence: "Why can't they hear us?" In that case, Spanish would use the verb oír instead: "¿Por qué no nos oyen?"
Playing it regular speed (fast), it sounds more like "escuchan" but, since it is all a blurr to me, I play it slowly and she clearly says "escuchar". I didn't think this was correct (for "ellos") but I played it quite a few times and decided it must be escuchar (since it was so clear), so I was marked wrong. I reported this to DL. Listening exercises should not be ambiguous or conflicting.
The meaning would be about the same, but I think the given we are supposed to translate is 'ellos'. Also, you are more likely to see/hear 'ellos' because it refers to a mixed gender group, an only male group, or the default for an unknown gender mixed group. Ellas would only work if you know it is a group of women.
Is it wrong to put no between the object and the verb, like "nos no eschuchan"? Putting it before "nos" makes me think of a different meaning "they listen to not to us (but to someone else)". Might be an influence of my slavic native language where "no" should precede exactly the negated word.