This comment interested me, so I asked about the matter here.
Seems to me that, at least for those of us to whom "We rode the bicycles..." sounds somewhat unusual that "our" is the default option for capturing the meaning provided by the "las."
See for instance here how about half the translations for "ride our bikes" include some form of possessive, but half don't .
Montar nuestras bicicletas sounds like you're using the possessive adjective unnecessarily, I would say don't use it unless the ownership of the bikes it's actually important in the conversation.
"Montamos las bicicletas el verano pasado." = "We rode bikes last summer." ...... why "the" is not required in this sentence?
I think because even when there are no specific bikes, las may still be used. montamos bicicletas = montamos en bicicleta (esp) = montamos las bicicletas
Montamos a bicicletas doesnt mean anything. The expression is "montar EN bicicleta (in singular)". You can "montar a caballo" though.
"Montamos bicicletas" means "we assemble (or assembled) bicycles".
This sentence sounds odd to me as it is. I would say "Montamos en bicicleta el verano pasado".
when the verb montar is accompanied by the noun that designates the cavalry or the vehicle in which it is mounted, it is constructed as intransitive with a complement introduced by the preposition "en", or "a", if it is the noun horse: montar en coche, montar en bicicleta, montar a caballo".
thank you so much, I corrected the en/a. I think DL is teaching the latin american way. Are you from Spain? I saw a forum post from someone in Chile saying they said it that way
I think in Chile they most commonly say "andar en bicicleta" (cf. top post in the thread I linked to above).
My answer "we rode bikes last summer" has just been rejected but Duo's answer is exactly the same !!