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  5. "The hotel has the basics."

"The hotel has the basics."

Translation:El hotel tiene lo básico.

March 19, 2018



Can someone please explain why "El hotel tiene los básicos" is incorrect? Thank you!


I asked a native Spanish speaker (from Spain) about this. He said he'd only use "tener lo básico" (meaning "has all the basic things") and wouldn't understand what "tener los básicos" meant (noting it looked like a bad copy of the English "have the basics").

He noted there are a good number of results for "tener los básicos" in Google, so he suspects it might be used in Latin America, presumably with the same meaning as "tener lo básico," but he can't be sure because he doesn't use it, and to him it doesn't sound good at all.

EDIT: Having now been able to pose this question to a non-Spaniard native speaker (Uruguayan), his reply was that he uses "lo básico"; that's what's generally used where he lives; but he understands "los básicos" is out there, too. However, it's "mal dicho."

Overall, it's reasonably likely that the Duolingo contributors deem "los básicos" to not be sufficiently standard (in usage and acceptance of usage) to be worthy of inclusion.


Same question. Can anyone explain? Thanks.


'Lo' is used to refer to an abstract topic. You would think that 'the basics' translates to 'los' since it's plural, but 'lo' is used in the singular. I guess that's just the rules :)


Thanks for the reply. I see the reasoning on that. "Lo" is a word I need to get more familiar with TBH.


So lo básico is a neuter article, which is used in this case to express an abstract concept. Now I understand...It is also used in clauses with que i.e. "lo que dice."

I also found this link short and sweet to the point: https://www.lawlessspanish.com/grammar/articles/neuter-article/

This sentence taught me a lot!


Thanks for sharing the link! I learned a lot too.


Why is it lo básico and not el básico


If one were looking for the go-to translation of "el básico," it'd be "the basic one" (I defer to native speakers as to any specific usage nuances of this turn of phrase).

"lo" before an adjective yields a meaning something like "that which is [adjective]"; for some adjectives this can be expressed in English just putting a "the" in front of the adjective: He sees the good in people = Él ve lo bueno en las personas. For "basic" the common English rendering for "that which is basic" happens to be "the basics" for whatever reason.


Lo is used as the article for substantivated adjectives: adjectives that are made into subjects. In this case the adjective básico is treated as an object


"the basics"- in this case why isn't "basic" a noun?


It is, hence the article. Normal adjectives don't get articles. I'm sorry if I wasn't clear enough. These concepts are hard to Google translations for.


I put "los básicos" and that was incorrect also


You need 'lo' here, and you can't pluralize that. 'básico' is an adjective and so cannot have a plural, but will always be 'lo básico'.


"tiene los básicos" actually has more Google results than "tiene lo básico" Some are irrelevant adjectives before a noun, but most aren't. Many are in a fashion/clothing context where one suspects it's a calque of "basic" used as a noun to indicate a simple staple of a wardrobe.

Others seem to be used similarly to the more general "the basics" is in English. Of course, the origin of this usage may be English influence (or simply native language interference for second-language Spanish speakers; one can't tell who it is that's writing online), but it's quite possible "los básicos" enjoys a certain degree of general currency in Spanish. This, of course, is quite a different matter than whether it is sufficiently standard for Duolingo to accept it as a translation.


I also used los básicos. To me the basics represent a generalized set of things/conditions and should be plural.


Languages differ ;)

There's no guarantee that singular / plural usage in these sorts of "mini structures" overlap perfectly, and in fact they often do not.


Me too. Not sure why it's wrong.


It seems like the pattern is...if it's said in singular in english, it's said in plural in spanish, and vice versa. Is that necessarily true?


why is "los basicos" not accepted for the basics?


Because it is not plural in Spanish

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