"This is a bad price."
Translation:Este es un mal precio.
".....un precio malO" would be grammatically correct (because "malo" drops its "o" only before a masc. sing. noun). You could try that next time if you can access that sentence again. I don't know, but there may be something about the meaning of this sentence that disallows your suggested word order.
Mal is something called an "apócope" which is when a sound is dropped. In this case "malo" without the o at the end. Also "mal" is being used here as an adjective rather than an adverb. Usually in Spanish the adjective comes after the noun, but if you put "mal" at the end of a sentence it USUALLY changes from adjective to adverb.
Ex (adverb): Este es un precio mal puesto. (This is a price wrongly put) Yo conduzco mal. (I drive badly.) Lo estás haciendo mal. (You're doing it wrong.)
Ex (adjective): La mala suerte. (The bad luck.) El mal hablar no es bueno. (Wrong-talking is not good.)
Some adjectives in Spanish have an exception to the "adjective after the noun" rule. "Mal" is one of them.
You can read more about it here:
Esto is a demonstrative pronoun, but it is only used to refer to neuter, unknown or abstract concepts (e.g. when there is no specific noun acting as its antecedent so that you would know the gender of the noun).
Este can be either a demonstrative pronoun (this one or this masculine thing) or demonstrative adjective (this masculine noun). Its antecendent or the noun that it modifies, if an adjective, must be masculine.
This refers to a masculine noun (el precio), so you write Este.
Me, too -- I gave that answer but it was marked incorrect. Can someone explain why "Es un mal precio" is not a correct translation of "This is a bad price," please? I did not report it because I'm not absolutely certain it's an error. I'd appreciate any light that anyone can shed on this. ¡Gracias!
what makes you think that? if that were the case they should give prior warning. Additionally, why do they later frequently accept what has been reported by the users. it must be that their data base at a particular point in time is incomplete. I would guess this is the case here.
No. Because you know that "this" refers to"precio", a masculine singular noun. So you have to use este. However, if gets confusing because if you were referring to "prices", or "precios", you would say "estos" for "these". But "esto" is only used if you don't know the gender of the noun it refers to.