"Your dad is not going to offer it to you."
Translation:Tu papá no te lo va a ofrecer.
I have difficulties with 'te lo' or 'lo te'. Can anyone explain why it should be 'te lo'?
The indirect object pronoun must come before the direct object pronoun.
Here's a great link which covers IO's and DO's.
dad, father...is the same thing in English. Same meaning for the same person. Father, dad, papa, dada...all the same thing in english.
Father is a more formal description. Dad is more familiar. They can be used for the same person, but they are not the same thing.
That's what I was thinking. I feel like it's let me use "padre" for "dad" in other sentences.
Why do they insist on using the informal tu as if all that we are to learn is the way you would talk to children, or in the intimacy of the family?
You should be able to add the pronoun te to the infinitive at the end - there is more than one way to pluck a chicken!
Do not know and just reported it myself. For the record I wrote: "Tu padre no te va a ofrecerlo" And think it probably should be accepted.
Or should it???? Changed my mind. Didn't report it. Put it through Spanishdict:s translating service and got a wierd response. Why should it matter if I say: ...te lo va a ofrecer ...te va a ofrecerlo Still not getting it.
''tu papa no te va a ofrecerlo'' should be accepted as well. Reported.