Notes that "des" (here) is the plural of "une". Some have the idea that "des" is "some", but that is not always the case. There is no counterpart for the plural indefinite article (a/an) in English. So by inserting "some", you are invoking a different meaning of the word. The "some" implied in your sentence is almost always ignored in English. https://www.thoughtco.com/du-de-la-des-1368977
I thought the same as you, but in English there is a difference between Does he eat vegetables? (habitually, usually) and Is he eating vegetables? (now, at the moment). The French sentence could mean either, of course, and without context Duo should accept either. You should report it.
where you're talking about an animal of
The gender of a particular animal could well be known by the speaker who, therefore, uses "il" intentionally.
In such a case, in English, the speaker might use "he" or "it" depending on their own preferred usage when referring to an animal.
You can't say "l'légumes" as you are using the singular definite article with a plural noun → it would need to be "les légumes". This question would be asking if he eats "those specific" vegetables.
Remember, des is the plural of un / une → the indefinite articles. So this question is just enquiring if he eats vegetables in general. The inclusion of the word des is necessary in the French sentence but its translation (as "some") is superfluous in the English sentence.
Don't get into the habit of using "some" for "des". It is only the plural form of "une". There is no corresponding word in English for it. While "some" may occasionally work, it is almost always ignored in English. It does not mean "some of them" or "a portion of them". It only refers to an undetermined amount. See here: https://www.thoughtco.com/du-de-la-des-1368977
One method pf creating a question is to invert the subject-verb order. In English, we can see this in: It's brown/Is it brown? In French, we can see this in: Il mange des légumes/Mange-t-il des légumes? (The "t" in the French question is simply to make it sound better. It doesn't have real meaning.)
"Des" does not indicate generality. It is the plural form of "un/une". There is no counterpart for that in English. While some people feel they need to have an English word to put there and use "some", it is almost always ignored in English. I.e., "des légumes" = vegetables. https://www.thoughtco.com/du-de-la-des-1368977
Hello Liam299257, we have , here, an interrogative sentence with a subject inversion : " mange-t-il ?" In french the interrogative sentence can have 2 forms: - " Est-ce qu'il mange ?" or " Mange-t-il ?" In the second form, the "-t-" ( between the verbe ended by the vowel "-e-" and the suject "il" (beginning with the vowel "-i-") is just here to allow a good and easy pronunciation : You cannot say : " Mange il ?" because there is what is called a "hiatus" made by "e" followed with "i", it is unpronouncable ! The consonant "-t-" allows the prononciation withut hiatus: Some examples : " Chante-t-il ?" , " Pleure-t-il ?, "Ira-t-il ?".... (Sorry for my poor English level !)