Translation:I like it when we can eat lunch early.
Is there a reason that "I like when we can have lunch early" is not accepted? is the "it" that necessary?
In fact in another example, not using the 'it" was acceptable (something like: "he likes (it) when his daughter reads.) and there was a long discussion about the two ways being equally acceptable. The inconsistency is a bit unnerving.
Ditto. The it seems superfluous in English and I'm not sure I see where it is in the French.
I tried that just now, just to see whether it would work (with "lunch" as a verb accepted in other exercises). Fun to see what will and won't work.
I like it when we can have an early breakfast. In Canada 'déjeuner' means 'breakfast'.
"I like when we can have lunch early" not accepted, reported 1st Aug 18 .
je suis tellement fustre quand je me trompe pluiseurs fais mais je sais avec certitude que j'ai raison
“it” is not expressly in the French sentence. The word appears in the translation because that is how an English speaker would speak the sentence. Consider what the “it” is referring to. It is referring to “when we can eat lunch early” , i.e. the clause setting out what it is that “ I like “.
Is "J'aime bien lorsque nous pouvons déjeuner tôt" also a valid translation for the English statement?
They mean exactly the same thing, but I've heard that "quand" is used more often in spoken French.
"Breakfast" should also be accepted as an alternative to lunch, as this is the meaning of "déjeuner" in Quebec.
Le dîner. Sometimes, you will also hear "lunch." :) The French "dîner" is "(le) souper in québécois—and also parts of Swiss and Belgian French and in regions of France. As one authority put it, eating-time terms are a "véritable casse-tête" (a real headache) for French people visiting Québec (and vice-versa for québécois going to France. The English "supper" comes from Middle English "super," which comes from Old French "soper" or "souper," and English "soup" also comes from this, because the evening meal was often soup. Bon appétit!
I believe the 'it' is in the expression 'aimer bien' as opposed to 'aimer'. Idiomatically in English, I believe "aimer bien" means 'I REALLY like it'. I can't spell this out syntactically, but this may answer the puzzle. The contrast between 'aimer bien' and 'aimer' would be: 'I like it when we can eat lunch early' as opposed to 'I like eating/having lunch early'.
"J'aime bien" is a relatively weak form of "I like" and not at all stronger than "J'aime" by itself. Use "J'aime beaucoup" for I really like, or (even more emphatic) "j'adore".
Why isn't "I like it very much when we can eat lunch early" accepted.. doesn't "bien" re-enforce "aime"?
Well, the machine now accepts translations both with and without "it" so most of this thread should be deleted.
Forgive me, but is there a way to distinguish tôt from tous, by sound? Because I want to eat EVERYTHING. Thanks.
Tôt is pronounced like "toh," or like the "to" at the end of "pimento."
"Tous" is pronounced more like "too."
At least that's how I hear them.
In my experience in American English we use to "eat lunch" and to "have lunch" interchangeably. Every time I use "have" I get it wrong so I'm assuming they are not interchangeable in French??? Can someone please clarify. Thanks
I don't see the French article for "it" in this sentence. At first glance I thought it was "on" but that is for "we." Please explain
It is just added to the translation because that is a more natural way of saying it in English. There is no "it" in the French sentence.
"when we eat lunch" is what "I like". The "it" is no more necessary in English than it is in French.
Why are we using peut and not peux (for I like when..) or pouvons (we can...)?