"You try different foods."
Translation:Usted prueba comidas diferentes.
Usted prueba comidas diferentes. it this a command or just statement. In English sentence, there is no indication to show if it is a command. and spanish answer did not give any astonishment mark, !, so that not sure what it is. so why tú pruebas comidas diferentes was marked wrong? If it were command, a pruebe should have been used, shouldn´t it?
This is just a statement. You are correct, if it was a command pruebe would have been used (because of the usted). The English sentence "You try different foods" as it is, I think would most likely be interpreted as a statement more often than not. To be more like a command I think it would need the word "will" - "You will try different foods",
elizadeux....pretend you have a keyboard that doesnt have accents. now pretend you cannot be bothered copypasting the accented letters from the question. So you write without accents.
jeez talk about missing the point entirely. she really went on about spelling of 'tu' and ignored the actual thing people were talking about.....lol holy moly thats a little bit special
Actually the English imperative does not use subject pronouns at all. It is the only case where omitting a subject pronoun is allowed. The correct translation for Pruebe comidas diferentes would be simply Try different foods. While it may sound like a command to say You will try different foods, that has nothing to do with the imperative. That sentence is indicative.
Try different foods isn't a dialect variation of this, it's just a different "mood". You try different foods is a declarative sentence in the indicative mood. Except as stating a general rule, it would more likely be phrased as You are trying different foods. Try different foods is an instruction or command in the imperative mood. They have different functions linguisticly.
-ar (hablar) ending verbs should have -e at the end of its usted form, if its a command or a request (i.e., usted hable). Which would make Usted habla a normal sentence. So isn't Requests/Orders the lesson we are learning? Why Duo gives a sentence to mess up our learning? And how to distinguish between a request/order and a normal sentence?
This sentence is in the indicative, not the imperative, and whatever unit you find it in, the problem you brought up about knowing how to distinguish between the two moods is exactly why they would have some indicative expressions among those teaching the imperative. The English imperative is marked particularly by the lack of a subject pronoun. In Spanish, no tense or mood requires them, but you will never see usted before an imperative. I am not sure if the subject pronoun is allowed here or not, but you will never see it used in the imperative on Duo. I think I may have heard people include tú at the end of an angry imperative statement, but never before the verb. And I don't know if what I heard would be considered "good" Spanish, since I have not heard it much, certainly. So Prueba comidas diferentes could either be translated as a tú imperative (Try different foods) or a usted indicative (You try different foods). But tú prueba is just plain wrong. And any subjunctive form you see with a subject pronoun is in the subjunctive mood, not the imperative.
It appears that "foods" is generic in this sentence, so why is "las comidas diferentes" not accepted? I've had to work so hard to remember the "leading" article in Spanish, but when i finally remember to do so in this case, it's marked wrong. Aaaargh! (No Spanish cognate)
It was a bit hazy for me also, but here it what my grammar book says about the use of articles.
The article is used:
to speak about a person or something unique: La madre de Antonio.
to speak about a person or something specific, when is it clear what person or thing we are talking about: Quiero ver al director.
* to speak about someone or something in a general manner: El tobaco es malo para la salud. (All tobacco).
The article isn't used:
* before the direct object of a verb when we refer to something in general: Lola escribe novelas (novels in general).
So to go back to the tobacco example, because el tobaco is not the direct object of a verb and we are speaking generally, it uses the article, but when it is the direct object of a verb, like to buy, and we are still talking generally, we don't use the article.
Ejemplo: Antonio compra tobaco - Antonio buys tobacco in general.
Contrasted with Antonio compra el tobaco - Antonio buys the specific tobacco.
I hope that makes sense.
Jason C. I admire your consistent endeavor in pursuing excellence in Spanish grammar. I feel the subtle difference in grammar is there and important in writing or speaking proper Spanish. My goal is not set as high as yours. I just want to be able to communicate with Spanish speaking people a little and make some sense. I am not looking for excuse for my laziness, just feeling it is impossible for me to be very good in this language. I probably would be as enthusiastic as you are if I were 20 years younger.
It does. Thanks. In this usage I assumed it was due to being a direct object (but was too lazy to confirm as you did). With so many cases in Spanish, I'm sure that even if I become "fluent" in Spanish, native speakers will always flinch when they hear me speak (LoL)!
The way I see this question is "You try different foods" is the fixed base sentence which has a translation (well several as we've seen from the comments here). If the Spanish sentence was the base then the English would be listed as the translation, and there would likely be multiple correct translations, yours being among them. I am solely basing this off how the sentences are presented at the top. I've just had a bit of a look at some of the other questions and I think that my educated guess is correct, but am happy to be corrected by someone with evidence to the contrary.
So for Usted, with "prueba" it is the indicative, and with "pruebe" it is the imperative.
In English, the imperative would be null-subject e.g. "Try this"--not "You try this."
In Spanish, is it equally ok to include the subject or leave it null? And is there a preference between using "Usted pruebe..." vs "Pruebe..."?
pruebes is the present subjunctive second person conjugation.
The state "You try different foods" is not a subjunctive clause.
"Quiero que pruebes comidas diferentes" - I want you to try different foods. Here the subjunctive is used because it is used to express a wish or a desire for something to occur.
You don't "suddenly" use a formal address, but everyone uses both informal and formal address, although informal address is also becoming more common in places. On the other hand, I read somewhere that in Costa Rica they use usted even for children and pets sometimes. They seem to be going the route of English and Brazilian Portuguese. Of course in Costa Rica they don't use tú at all, they use vos. But the rules vary according to a lot of factors. You may get a pass because you are foreign, but it is obviously safer to use formal address if you are unsure.
I am not sure what they were trying to say, but if they were saying it is ever correct to use a subject pronoun in the imperative, they are wrong. You can certainly give an order that isn't imperative. You will go right now! But that is the indicative mood nevertheless. The imperative is characterized by the use of the infinitive root with a subject. That's why be quiet uses be instead of a conjugated form.
Of course you can use some pronouns in the imperative. Do that ! That is a demonstrative pronoun.
sure, in a group, one could say, to one individual in the group, (and usually point) : "you go get the pencils" (or whatever) "you go get the scissors" and direct different people in a group to do different things. Also, arguments to one person can be commanding "you do this or that" ; "no, you try this or that". usually the pronoun in these situations is italicized when written to show the emphasis. There are many instances where you would use the pronoun with a command, but English has many dialects and slight variances that people can be a bit touchy about. :) but I am talking about a singular "you" in these cases.
also, if you talk like a jedi, the command starts with the pronoun "you" , and not always with a "you will" ;)
There is a difference between using the indicative mood, as you did, to issue what is essentially a command, and using the imperative mood, despite the fact that the imperative mood is often called command. But actually many imperative sentences are more invitations than commands. Certainly if I told my mother "come in and sit down" or my co-worker "get some rest" they would not be considered commands, although they are imperative. The English imperative uses the infinitive root of the verb without a subject pronoun. The first person plural uses let's, but that's not a subject pronoun.
The reason this is important is that you have to understand which forms require the Spanish imperative and which the indicative.
This is a case where the English and the Spanish are the same. If you say las comidas diferentes that would be the different food, talking about a specific set of different foods. This case where neither Spanish nor English uses the definite article is the case of "some". If you can add the word some before the noun in the English sentence without changing the meaning, that's the time when Spanish also doesn't use the definite article. The time they do but we don't is when you are making a generalizing statement which implies you are talking about the "all".
There are three different cases where a language can use a definite article. Spanish uses it in two of the three cases, but English only uses it with one. So you have one case where they both use the article, one case where neither uses the article and one case where Spanish uses the definite article that we don't in English. The case where we both use the definite article is where we are talking about a specific one, set or portion. This exercise is an example where neither language uses one, although French and to some extent Italian do have something called the "partitive article" for this. This is the case of "some". If you can add the word some to the sentence (some different foods) without changing the meaning, then neither language will use the definite article.
The case that confuses English speakers is the last one. In English, if we are generalizing about something, essentially talking about the "all", we never use the definite article, but they always do in Spanish. So the first consequence is easy. When something is the subject of a Spanish sentence it will always require a definite article. Either you are talking about a particular one, set or portion, or you are generalizing about the "all". That's why so many Spanish sentences about things have two translations - one with the article and one without. But it's not as easy in the predicate. But if some does change the meaning, you will know. I prefer some tea for example, isn't the same as I prefer tea. That means that to say I prefer coffee you do need the article. Prefiero el té. The other would require algo in Spanish. I hope this make sense to you.
"You" in English can be plural. So is "Ustedes proban las comidas diferentes" wrong? (It was marked wrong, but I may be missing something.) I'm interested that many of the comments below take the English verb as imperative; the simpler interpretation is that it is indicative. The sentence was not "Try different foods!"
Ustedes should be fine, although it is not uncommon for Duo to miss a "you" form. But your verb isn't conjugated correctly. Probar is a o>ue stem changing verb which means it is prueb+ending in all forms except nosotros (and vosotros, if used). It should be ustedes prueban comida diferente.
You try... can't be imperative in English. The imperative is the only mood in English that doesn't use the subject pronoun. But because Spanish generally omits subject pronouns, English speakers do sometimes mistranslate indicative Spanish sentences without the pronoun as imperative English ones. But in this case I think it's just because this sentence sounds a little unusual in the present tense instead of the present progressive, so users with less understanding of the English imperative are looking for a way to make this sound more natural. Of course there are various reasons why this sentence may be in the present tense, but they need more context to be obvious.
There aren't always a lot of rules about word order when it comes to subjects, but with subject pronouns it's even difficult to get a feel for native use because subject pronouns tend to be rather few and far between in native speech. But with third person subject pronouns, clarity is one of the reasons to use them, and if you are trying to use the subject pronoun to clarify whom you are speaking to, or perhaps with usted as an additional sign of deference, that is best accomplished by putting it in the expected position, which would be first in this sentence. The declarative sentences that most frequently have the verb first in the sentence, but do include the subject pronoun, are those with reflexive verbs or verbs like gustar, although our translations of verbs like gustar don't recognize that it's the subject that comes last.
My suggestion to students is that it's not really particularly important to learn about the unusual placements of subject pronouns, except in questions with interrogatives which prevent the traditional placement. As I said, in almost any context they are absent more than they are present. But pay close attention to the placement of stated subjects (not pronouns). They can move around and look like the direct object if you assume the subject pronoun is omitted. Duo is always going to use usted in a simple answer like this. That allows them to use Usted prueba comidas diferentes as an exercise to get back to this sentence. Seldom in actual conversation do people not recognize that they are being addressed as opposed to someone else being spoken about. That's mostly body language. So this sentence would most probably be said as Prueba comidas diferentes. But in translating that back, usted would probably be one of the last options considered by students. They would either take it as the tú imperative Try different foods, or he/she tries different foods. But it would be extremely uncommon for someone to misinterpret this in context.
No. You did it correctly, putting it after the noun. But Duo only really touches on some of these "meaning changing" adjectives, and I don't remember a single example of varias coming after the noun on Duo. Before the noun it means some or several. But your use is correct, although I'm not sure how common.
It’s in Spanish, but this may help.
If you are starting from the English in a sentence like this, you will always know whether it is imperative, because English has a pretty distinctive imperative mood, but you wouldn't be able to tell which form of you to use unless there were some clue in the English. Absent one of their clues to the you form, Duo should always accept at least the three Latin American forms of you, tú, usted and ustedes, but should also always accept vosotros for those who want to practice that form, although they don't teach it. They did add some vosotros units which would only accept vosotros forms for plural you (with first names), just to give everyone some practice. If you are starting from the Spanish that may why Duo almost always includes the usted. Duo does make mistakes by omitting one or more of the possible forms of you when translating from English, but I've never seen an exercise where Duo didn't make it absolutely clear that it was an imperative. Thr distinctive thing about the English imperative is that it's the only form that correctly and always omits the subject pronoun in English. So if this were an imperative, it would be Try different foods. But you'll also see things with exclamation points and the like to clarify.
That's a more complicated question than you think, because your question wasn't specific enough. The verb here is probar, so the usted present indicative is prueba. Pruebe is the present subjunctive or the imperative for usted, and prueba becomes the imperative for tú. But assuming you're just asking about this sentence, prueba is correct for usted.
I'm confused. In a different sentence, "We drink different wines" was "Nosotros bebemos diferentes vinos", but here, it's "Usted pruebe comidas diferentes". In the one sentence, different was placed before the subject and the converse wasn't accepted. In this sentence, different went after the subject and the converse wasn't accepted. What's the difference?
Well Duo definitely put too fine a point here. Unfortunately it's the other one that is incorrect, or at least insufficiently justified. But let me try to explain why I think Duo saw these differently. To be clear, I'm not justifying their answers as much as trying to teach what they obviously failed to teach properly here, and probably wouldn't ever be able to teach effectively. Duo doesn't do well with nuance.
All descriptive adjectives that can move in front of the noun have a somewhat different meaning when they do so. Some are extremely subtle differences and others less so. In some cases the move will result in a clearer translation difference, but others, although you can use a different word to better define the meaning, the original word often can be used in both meanings.
With diferente(s) the standard translation of "different" changes to "various" if used before the noun. If you are presenting those as separate, you would use various for things within the same set or category, and different across categories. Using this logic, one would try diferentes vinos, diferentes quesos, diferentes panes, diferentes carnes, diferentes vegetales, etc. And after you did all that, you would have tried comidas diferentes. Each of those is one category of the non specific category of foods. They would use the same system for differentes sillas, diferentes mesas, diferentes escritorios..... Mobiles diferentes.
I have linked Spanishdict.com's discussion about adjective placement below. The section on meaning changing adjectives is quite helpful, especially since this is often a hard topic for Duo to explain, but it will affect the way people understand what you say, so you should be aware of it. The don't include my detailed (or verbose?) explanations for the differences, but you will understand as you notice it in practice.
This is the case of "some", which is the one where neither English nor Spanish use the article. The article that is used here, in languages like French that do use one, is called a "partitive article". These articles are generally translated as "some" in English, because these are all situations when you can add (or omit) the word some without changing the meaning of the sentence. So I have borrowed that from French and sort of reverse engineered it for Spanish. If you can add some to the English sentence without changing the meaning, the Spanish translation doesn't need the definite article.
There are even a few exercises on Duo where the English has some where the Spanish has nothing. You can add algo de to a Spanish sentence without changing the meaning much, but it does seem to change the feeling more than some does in Spanish. I think Duo's point is valid there, I just don't think they give it the support it needs to teach it well.
Yes, tish, I agree that your way should be an acceptable alternative.
Diferente is a meaning-changing adjective, depending upon whether you say diferentes comidas or comidas diferentes. See https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/adjective-placement