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  5. "Since they had a child, they…

"Since they had a child, they have not been the same."

Translation:Depuis qu'ils ont eu un enfant, ils ne sont plus pareils.

March 31, 2018



Why not "ils ne sont pas les mêmes"? I'm going to suggest it as a correct answer, but if anyone can explain otherwise, I would appreciate that :)


That's exactly what I wrote too, and it's wrong, but I don't understand why either.


Same question here. Sitesurf, could you please explain.


I got it wrong, too. Just guessing here, based on some quick investigation on Reverso, that même implies a more literal sameness, and pareil more figurative. So the latter is better for this sentence, I guess.


Ok, never mind that. It was the ne ... plus construct that was needed. "Depuis qu'ils ont eu un enfant, ils ne sont plus les mêmes." was just accepted for me.


not for me - i wrote exactly the same and it was NOT accepted.


Whoa, some of these sentences are getting so complex. My brain is being crushed. Simple sentence, bam, got it! Long and complicated, oh boy, one little mishap, a slight word misplacement or order or whatever, KO., I'm out.


Agreed, this is a particularly difficult sentence that you can make so many different grammar mistakes on. - use of depuis qu, ne sont plus, and the proper use of compound tense in the subordinate clause, and present tense in the main clause. Ive been over and over this one. So don't feel bad.


Could someone please explain why we don't need to type 'pas'?


There are other words which can be used in that position. Use "pas" for "not", but use "plus" for "no longer" and use "jamais" for "not ever" and use "rien" for "not any". There are others too.


Why does it have to be "plus": meaning "anymore" in the translation to French. From English to French. Are you inferring it from the English version or the French,,,?


"they are no longer the same"

What form did you think it should be?


My English sentence to translate from says "they have not been the same," with nothing like "no longer." But I got marked wrong for not including "plus" in the French.


Much of language, including English, is idiomatic. That's one reason why translators have such a tough job. It's important that we learn French idiomatic expressions or we'll be lost if we go out into the real world with it.


the drop down menu was less than helpful.


I dont understand why i have to use the word 'eu' here. Can anyone explain? Merci


"Eu" is the past participle of avoir.

  • ils ont un enfant = they have a child → present tense
  • ils ont eu un enfant = they had a child → past tense


I thought that "Depuis qu" is followed by the present tense because the action is still happening.


Use the present tense on the action that is still happening or still valid at the present. Is the action of "having a child" happening right now? Or is the fact that they are not the same still valid right now?


That depends on whether you use "have" to mean " to have a child" ("I have a three year old") or "to get/give birth a child" ("I had Timothy when I was 25").


drop down has "ils/elles ont eus


Depuis qu'ils ont eu un enfant, ils ne sont plus les mêmes - accepted


Again, if Duo wants me to answer "ils ne sont plus pareils" why can't it give "they are no longer the same"? What is the difference between les memes & pareils?


"What is the difference between les memes & pareils?" That is also my question, and it seems to be difficult to answer. https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/16980941/M%C3%AAme-vs-pareil https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/1286720/C-est-toujours-pareil As far as I can guess from looking at various websites, meme = same and pareil = parallel, comparable or similar, but there seems to be a slight grammatical difference, mentioned here: https://www.kwiziq.com/questions/view/what-is-the-difference-between-the-use-of-le-la-meme-and-pareil that meme is an adjective describing a noun (chose, for example), while pareil is an adverb that describes a verb (etre, for example). Hoping someone who actually knows might add to or correct what I have gathered here...


The problem for English speakers is that the words same or the same can have more than one meaning, but no-one stops to think about the exact meaning. In French these nuances of meaning are represented by different words. Rather than learn grammatical rules,the easiest way to know which one to use is by thinking which words you could use to replace 'same' in the English sentence. If you mean identical, the very same, that exact one, then use 'même'. If you mean like it, like this, like that, equivalent, equal, then use pareil. Think about this sentence...'The same man opened the door, but he was not the same.'


Boy, was this ever a tricky sentence to translate!


Why is the second part of this sentence in present tense in French?


why not "Depuis qu'ils ont eus un enfant, ils ne sont plus pareils." I mean ils is plural and it needs ont eus. why it says ont eu?


With "avoir" as the auxiliary verb, the participle agrees with the object, not the subject, and only if the object is placed before the verb. Look at the object of "ont eu" here: "un enfant". It comes after the verb, so there's no agreement. It must stay as "eu". (Ils has nothing to do with this agreement.)


Why "depuis que"? Would "depuis" not suffice?

Or do you just have to have a "que" in a subordinate clause?


"Depuis" is a preposition, and "depuis que" is the conjunction. In other words, you need the conjunction if you need "since" + subject and verb. This pattern is true for many other prepositions and conjunctions: après, après que, avant, avant que, pendant, pendant que, etc. So indeed, you would need "que" in a clause.

  • depuis 2001 = since 2001
  • depuis que je la connais = since I have known her
  • avant mai = before May
  • avant que ma mère revienne = before my mother comes back


They have not been ---> ils ne sont Is the present tense obligatory in French for events that have happened upto the present moment (present perfect in English)??


With "depuis", yes. French likes the present tense there because the action is still valid in the present moment.


Why are both clauses not in the present tense?

"Depuis qu'ils ont un enfant, ils ne sont pas pareils."

"Ils ne sont pas pareils depuis qu'ils ont un enfant"


Because the action of "having a child" is not happening at present time. The fact that "they are not the same" is valid at present time.


in English you have two types of past tense in a sentence, which makes perfect grammatical sense to me. but in French the second part of the sentence is present tense.... what is the rule in French?


"Depuis" in French is used with the present tense to indicate an action that started in the past and is still happening in the present. In English, you would focus on the past (have not been the same), but in French, the focus is on the present because the action is still happening in the present.

If you have some time, read this explanation about "depuis":

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