"Depuis que tu lui as parlé, il est devenu plus précis."

Translation: Since you spoke to him, he has become more precise.

[Leen-Francesca]

Would "became" also be correct? I'm not an English speaker so I'm just asking.

[CatherinedeF]

Became is a slightly different tense (don't ask me the name of it sorry). 'Has become' is more correct as it implies that "he" is still more precise and you are still talking about the same period of time. Became implies that you are talking about time past in which case the first half of the sentence would have to say 'when you spoke to him he became more precise' rather than 'since you spoke to him'.

[CherylFont1]

Now I am confused. In the sentence "Depuis que je connais, elle n'est jamais venue ici" translates to "Since I have known her , she has never come here. "Je connais" is expressed in the present tense in French because of "depuis que''.

In this sentence ''Depuis que tu lui as parlé , il est devenu plus précise'' translates to "Since you spoke to him, he has become more precise.'' Why is it "Depuis qu tu lui as parlé'' expressed in the present perfect tense and not in the in the present tense ''Depuis que tu lui parles.''

What am I missing here?

[SakrajitGh]

There is "lui AS parle", meaning "have spoken to her" or "spoke to her".

[Asimmons1941]

I agree that since is a good translation. I tried after. It is wrong. Any reason why.

[ShivendraS620]

Why use "que" there?

[HarlanWHoc]

Same question that Shivendra asked? Why use "que"?

[CatherinedeF]

because since is 'depuis que'

[2X1BQfHM]

Why is "since you have spoken to him" is wrong

[CatherinedeF]

Why does the audio sound the 's' in plus? My impression was that it would normally be silent unless a vowel starts the next word.