"This has not prepared him well."

Translation: Esto no lo ha preparado bien.

[ldv1970]

Note: "lo" corresponds to accusative, and "le" to dative of "él".

[jordan.ebert]

What does dative mean?

[RichardMag3]

Indirect object

[elizadeux]

Oh thank you. I've heard "dative" so many times and never knew what it meant!

[Greg324715]

Why not: esto no le ha preparado a el bien

[SarahRoar1]

I had the same question! Le works for to him/to her, the indirect object pronoun. What I didn't know is lo/la as the direct object pronoun isn't just for referring to an it, but also just to him/her if it's not TO him/her. "Lo veo" is I see him."Le canto" is I sing TO him/her. I just learned this, so research it, these are what helped me:
https://www.spanishdict.com/answers/246672/le-vs.-lo-pronouns
https://www.mytutor.co.uk/answers/5950/A-Level/Spanish/When-is-it-right-to-use-lo-la-and-le-in-Spanish/

[Seabass997491]

Question: Why is "lo" required in the answer of "Esto no lo ha preparado bien a el."

[kooties12]

Why esto not este?

[Daddy2k5]

The question is - would i not be understood for using le instead of lo? The defence rests your honour.

[FrankJMich]

Why "no lo" instead of "lo no"?

[elizadeux]

Argh! I forgot that you can attach the object pronoun to the present participle (gerund) but not to the past participle.