Topic: Spanish

"This has not prepared him well."

Translation:Esto no lo ha preparado bien.

April 1, 2018

9 Comments

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Seabass997491

    Question: Why is "lo" required in the answer of "Esto no lo ha preparado bien a el."

    September 19, 2018
    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kooties12
    • 565

    Why esto not este?

    February 17, 2019
    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ldv1970
    • 1365

    Note: "lo" corresponds to accusative, and "le" to dative of "él".

    April 1, 2018
    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jordan.ebert

      What does dative mean?

      April 25, 2018
      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RichardMag3

        Indirect object

        May 7, 2018
        https://www.duolingo.com/profile/FrankJMich

          Why "no lo" instead of "lo no"?

          June 2, 2018
          https://www.duolingo.com/profile/elizadeux

            Argh! I forgot that you can attach the object pronoun to the present participle (gerund) but not to the past participle.

            July 15, 2018
            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Greg324715
            • 11

            Why not: esto no le ha preparado a el bien

            September 14, 2018
            https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SarahRoar1

              I had the same question! Le works for to him/to her, the indirect object pronoun. What I didn't know is lo/la as the direct object pronoun isn't just for referring to an it, but also just to him/her if it's not TO him/her. "Lo veo" is I see him."Le canto" is I sing TO him/her. I just learned this, so research it, these are what helped me: https://www.spanishdict.com/answers/246672/le-vs.-lo-pronouns https://www.mytutor.co.uk/answers/5950/A-Level/Spanish/When-is-it-right-to-use-lo-la-and-le-in-Spanish/

              February 28, 2019
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