"Je suis partie après que nous avons mangé."
Translation:I left after we ate.
It has been a long time since I have taken a French grammar class, so I don't know whether I will explain this clearly.
The "had" plus particle is the pluperfect tense, AKA the past perfect. If I am correct, to be translated as "had eaten," the French sentence would be "J'ai parti après que nous avions mangé."
It's true that French speakers only use subjunctive with "après que", and if you use indicative you will get corrected, as it is unnatural and sounds like a mistake.
But unfortunately, this is one of several instances where the Académie decided to prescribe something that goes completely against how the language naturally works, pretending that "après que" must be followed by indicative as it describes an action that already occured.
Duolingo only accepts "proper" Académie-approved French and therefore probably won't accept subjunctive, but it's important to keep in mind that "après que nous ayons" is indeed what's used in practice.
The purpose of the exercise was to translate the sentence. "Nous avons mangé" means "we ate" or "we have eaten." It does not mean "we had eaten." "We left after we ate" is correct grammatical English. "We have eaten" does not make sense in this sentence and I don't know why it is shown as such on some people's screens.
I wrote ' I left after we had eaten' which is correct English. It was marked incorrect and gave the correct answer as ' I left after we have eaten' which is incorrect English and simply doesn't make sense. If they can't get the English right makes me doubt their French. Come on Duolingo get your act together
I think: I left... after we had eaten is better English grammatically. the two past tenses are not the same and in English you would make a difference... one happened after the other one. so the correct answer should be accepted and not marked wrongly in favour to an incorrect English translation.
I will try. The construction "nous avons mangé" is in the passé composé tense. The correct translation is either "we ate" or "we have eaten." There are times when avoir + the past participle may be translated to a single action (ate, danced,etc.) or using have (have eaten, have danced). However, in the context of this sentence, there is only one choice: "we ate."
"Nous avons mangé" is in the passé composé tense. It translates as either a simple action (ate) or the past participle with the verb "have" (have eaten). You have to go by the context of the sentence to determine the meaning - ate or have eaten, which in this case is "we ate." "Had" is never correct as a translation of the passé composé.
"Nous avons mangé" is in the passé composé tense. It translates as either a simple action (ate) or the past participle with the verb "have" in the present tense (I have eaten, you have eaten, he/she/it has eaten, we have eaten, they have eaten). You have to go by the context of the sentence to determine the meaning - ate or have eaten. In this case, the correct answer is "we ate." "Had" is never correct as a translation of the passé composé.
There are certain verbs that use the verb etre as an auxiliary verb, including partir. See the link below. https://www.cliffsnotes.com/study-guides/french/french-i/french-i-the-passe-compose/the-passe-compose-with-etre