"Elle boit après qu'il a mangé."
Translation:She drinks after he has eaten.
Im guessing it's to differentiate between the passé composé and imperfect tenses. Still should be allowed though.
"after he ate" marked wrong too, what is the difference between "he ate" and "ha has eaten", to me they are the same meaning
Is "après que" a fixed phrase? Why do we need "que" here? Probably something to do with subjunctive but can someone explain in layman's terms? Thanks
As I understand it based on a reply on another thread... Après que is used before a clause with a conjugated verb. Après qu'elle a mangé... "elle a" = conjugated verb. Après ton repas... no conjugated verb.
Because French works that way. One of the things that you have to memorize. When I was learning English (from Spanish) I always wondered why "that" does not have to follow "after", until I accepted the fact that English is different and I learned to think that way.
honestly, I cannot smell what tense Duo wants in the translation. I put past tense... (in English imparfait... wrong... for same unit of passe compose I put English passe compose ... wrong again. I find it hard to differentiate when both options are sometimes rejected. how can I find out what Duo wants? I know how and when to use both tenses impartait, and passe compose in three languages, and I still get the usage wrong with Duo.
Such unnecessary complications! Obviously, we can all see the "a" in there, but native English speakers would likely opt to say "ate" on a casual basis. (Although this statement is unlikely regardless of form.) While "she drinks after he ate" is not a literal translation, contextual equivalencies usually pass muster here. Not this time... bummer ;-P
'Après que'.... much like 'Viens de'... (You JUST did..)
From what I could find/glean it indicates depending on usage whether or not the action or statement is certain to occur or merely a possibility. [Indicative/Subjunctive]
But also if it is something routine or habitual... AND the timing of the event. Which naturally affects tense...
Present..Passe Compose... L'Imparfait...etc...
So I assume that (given MY understanding of English... and the notion that it might have some small worth when applied to French) ... 'ate' is a verb... 'eaten' is a participle.... verb=action ...participle= noun or verb modifier (descriptor)
Ate is past tense. Eaten is past participle or Passive tense.
So I just assume it refers to WHEN it occurred... and why there is an issue with 'ate' opposed to 'eaten'...
But I could be wrong.
My “She drinks after he had eaten” was marked wrong too. If “after he has eaten” is the correct translation for the passé composé here, then what tense would you use for “after he had eaten”?