"Elle boit après qu'il a mangé."
Translation:She drinks after he has eaten.
honestly, I cannot smell what tense Duo wants in the translation. I put past tense... (in English imparfait... wrong... for same unit of passe compose I put English passe compose ... wrong again. I find it hard to differentiate when both options are sometimes rejected. how can I find out what Duo wants? I know how and when to use both tenses impartait, and passe compose in three languages, and I still get the usage wrong with Duo.
Such unnecessary complications! Obviously, we can all see the "a" in there, but native English speakers would likely opt to say "ate" on a casual basis. (Although this statement is unlikely regardless of form.) While "she drinks after he ate" is not a literal translation, contextual equivalencies usually pass muster here. Not this time... bummer ;-P
'Après que'.... much like 'Viens de'... (You JUST did..)
From what I could find/glean it indicates depending on usage whether or not the action or statement is certain to occur or merely a possibility. [Indicative/Subjunctive]
But also if it is something routine or habitual... AND the timing of the event. Which naturally affects tense...
Present..Passe Compose... L'Imparfait...etc...
So I assume that (given MY understanding of English... and the notion that it might have some small worth when applied to French) ... 'ate' is a verb... 'eaten' is a participle.... verb=action ...participle= noun or verb modifier (descriptor)
Ate is past tense. Eaten is past participle or Passive tense.
So I just assume it refers to WHEN it occurred... and why there is an issue with 'ate' opposed to 'eaten'...
But I could be wrong.