In this sentence "Nous avons de beaux enfants" why is "de" nesscary?
The indefinite plural article, which is normally des (and doesn't translate back into English which doesn't have such an article), contracts to de when there is an adjective before the noun:
Nous avons des enfants - We have children
Nous avons de beaux enfants - We have beautiful children
I actually don't quite know. because de means of which wouldn't make sense in that sentence. where did you see that?
de can indicate possession.
And it contracts the the definite article of the (le , les ) It does not contract for la
ie. C'est le chat de la fille. : It is the girl's cat.
C'est le chat du garçon. : It is the boy's cat.
Though it can also be more general, such as when it is the subject of the sentence. I suppose you could use a general rule, that when you think of the sentence in English, if you use the phrase "about the", then include de in the french sentence.
i.e. Elle parle de la pomme : She talks about the apple.
So you get :
de +le = du
Il parle du film : He talks about the film. ( the film : le film )
de + les = des
Elle parle des pommes : She talks about the apples ( the apple : la pomme )
Then de can mean from, and is used before infinitive verbs. (infinitive : the source , or root name for the verb.
The common verbs that require de are :
|do without||se passer de|
|have just||venir de|
|laugh at||rire de|
|take care of||s'occuper de|
Then the last one:
|in order to||afin de|
|instead of||au lieu de|
I am still not happy with this explanation, and hopefully I will come back and fill in some example sentences. Or perhaps someone else will. Or someone else might come by with a better explanation.
Please let me know if I have any errors, including spelling errors.
Thank you! I know a couple of its uses, I know "de" plays alot of roles in French grammar as a whole.