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"His boss has always barked at the staff."

Translation:Son chef a toujours aboyé sur le personnel.

April 9, 2018

11 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/aquillaz1

why is "aux personnel" wrong?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

"Aux personnel" is what I was corrected to! Why is "au personnel" wrong if the word "staff" is supposed to be grammatically singular in both English and French?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Linda4406

Good question. Could an expert help with this?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Brucolac

Is a "chef" always male?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Linda4406

Why not "son patron"? Is there a distinction between that and "chef"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/tanteju

Shouldn't "Son chef a toujours aboyé après le personnel" or "Son chef a toujours aboyé contre le personnel" be accepted as well? Or are there differences in meaning to "aboyer sur qn."?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Eclectic1234

Does "sur" always go with "aboyer"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/n6zs

It is idiomatic in French to say "aboyer sur qqch" (to bark at something), but one could also say "aboyer après" or "aboyer à".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Seattle_Scott

Is it also idiomatic to say "aux personnels" as opposed to "au personnel" ? Is that always plural in French?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/srh1056

shouldn't "...has always barked..." require the use of the imparfait tense instead of the passé composé?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

No, the imparfait, while conveying an unspecified length of time, refers to the past. The passé composé serves as both the past perfective AND the perfect, and it's the perfect that is meant here. If you are unaware of the grammatical term "perfect", it refers to actions beginning in the past that continue to affect the present, which is what they mean by "has always barked" (he has barked before and continues to bark now).

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