Thers a thing that I dont really understand from first lessons... Why is here "byla to..." instead of "byla ta..." for example?
The English sentence also contains "it is". It is more or less the same thing. "It is Jim." "It is my mother." Also has "it".
So... to there is an "undefined personal pronoun" intead of a demostrative, right? And is it also valid for plurals, whithout changes?
Yes, it is like that, although I am not sure about the classification and it is also valid for plurals in Czech.
Ooook! Gotcha! Thank youuu :)