"He had never felt this for anyone."
Translation:Él jamás había sentido esto por nadie.
Is there a reason you don't need the pronoun (me, te, le se, etc.) here? Isn't sentarse reflexive?
I guess it's because the verb is not reflexive in this sentence, bearing in mind that it is not working upon the subject.
Why jamás instead of nunca? still unclear on this, thought i knew but not now after this sentence.
I believe "nunca" is accepted as a possible translation.
Also, jamaud is also correct in the difference between "jamás" and "nunca".
Yes, there is a reason. cualquiera is not used in negative sentence in general (unless very specific examples), because Spanish is a double negative language. Basically we say He had never felt this for nobody in Spanish
Looks like "nunca" would be right here, not "jamás"... http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/111051/what-is-the-difference-between-jamas-and-nunca
I used jamás at the end of the sentence: is this totally incorrect in translation?
Él había sentido esto por nadie jamás.