"Does he like Spanish food?"
Translation:¿A él le gusta la comida española?
The definite article is required with generic nouns which refer to a concept or to a substance in general or a member of a class in general, rather than a specific one (where the article would be required in both languages).
I don't know why DoubleLingot's reply was downvoted, but it lines up with the top answer here: https://www.spanishdict.com/answers/167561/is-there-a-rule-for-when-you-use-the-definite-article-before-a-noun-me-gusta-comida-mexicana-me-gusta-la-comida-mexicana
It's never needed. Statements and questions are grammatically correct without it.
"Le gusta la comida espanola?" was rejected. Do you think this is a report-worthy material?
I would report it. "A él" isn't required for it to be grammatically correct. It's an optional phrase to clarify who "le" refers to.
because of the way 'gustar' works. 'a el' means 'to him' and the sentence kinda literally means 'spanish food is pleasing to him', except all in different order, of course, because, well, why not?
Here's hoping someone else jumps in with a much clearer explanation.
Probably they might accept "comida espanola" or "comida de espana" but "comida de espanol" means 'food of spanish' which doesn't make sense.
What doe the 'le' refer to in ¿A él 'le' gusta la comida española?
"le" (the indirect object pronoun) in this case is referring to the man who likes spanish food. Its use stems from the way gustar works, literally meaning "spanish food is pleasing TO HIM", hence the use of an indirect object.
(The "A el" is for emphasis, and clarifies that it is a male that likes spanish food.)
I came here to ask the same question you all are asking. I'm reporting it and we'll see what happens.