"Since we read that, things have been more logical."

Translation:Depuis qu'on a lu ça, les choses sont plus logiques.

April 16, 2018

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"Things have been more logical" should be translated as "Les choses ont été plus logiques". After all, "have been" is past tense. The translation now reads "since we have read that, things are more logical".


It doesn't work because you're applying English rules to French words. There's a grammatical difference here. In French, the present tense is used with "depuis" to indicate that the action still applies in the present. Your French translation sounds like things stopped being logical before now.


Can you comment on this different sentence: I was a child=J'étais un enfant Since I was a child=Depuis que je suis enfant. Why yet I am no longer a child?


It seems to me it should have accepted 'Depuis nous avons lu ca...'

As for the second part of the sentence, like another example in this unit, it appears to be in the present. Can "have been" be substituted for "are" in a translation to English?


I'll repeat what I mentioned in the other example. (And add that "nous" is also accepted here.)

"Depuis" in French is used with the present tense to indicate an action that started in the past and is still happening in the present. In English, you would focus on the past (have been more logical), but in French, the focus is on the present because the action is still happening in the present.

If you have some time, read this explanation about "depuis":


Thank you for repeating your earlier mentioned explanation and providing a link; it is helpful. I will look deeper into this issue to get to the bottom of things.


what’s wrong with phasing we as nous rather than on. How can you tell when to use which


"Nous" is accepted in this exercise. Specifically,

  • Depuis que nous avons lu ça, les choses sont plus logiques.


Why isn't it 'Depuis qu'on l'a lu'? I still don't really get when you have to use ça/cela/ceci and when l'/le/la/les


Strictly speaking, demonstrative pronouns (this/that) are distinguished from regular object pronouns (it).

  • ça/cela/ceci → this or that
  • l'/la/le → it


That makes sense. Thanks! You have so many languages at a high level!! I am impressed. I started three days ago, but hope to be like you one day.


I'm sure this is blindingly obvious but just now I can't think why ça isn't treated as a direct object and placed before the (conjugated?) verb. What am I missing? Thanks


Because it's a demonstrative pronoun like ceci and cela. As a rule, they don't go before the verb. And it's not that blindingly obvious.


I wrote "Depuis qu'on a lu ça, les choses aient été plus logique" Is "sont" being used here as a case of french using present tense for recent past that is still ongoing? Rather than an actual translation of "have been"?


Is "sont" being used here as a case of french using present tense for recent past that is still ongoing?

The French use the present tense with "depuis" because the action is still ongoing. In English, the present perfect "have been" must be used because the action started in the past. Two different perspectives.

As for your translation, the subjunctive is not used here.

  • 1930

I tried "depuis que nous avons lu ça, les choses sont devenues plus logiques" and got rejected.

I know "les choses sont devenues plus logiques" is not exactly correct word by word, but it seems more logically correct than "sont" alone.


Why can't we say, Nous avons lu ça? Why is this wrong?


You need 'since' (depuis que). To the best of my knowledge you could write 'depuis que nous avons lu ça'


Of course with depuis as the first word.


How are we to know that the translation is On and not Nous. Back in the day we were taught that On translated as One as in the royal we, in this case one has read that.


Both "on" and "nous" are accepted. "On" also serves as the informal version of the subject pronoun "nous". So "nous" as the subject is rarely used in spoken French. It's a fairly good indication of a beginner or not fluent speaker if they don't use "on" in this manner.


wouldn't "have been more logical" be the same as "have become more logical"...... in fact, wouldn't the second phrase better fit the intended meaning of the sentence?


Does "on" always go with "a" rather than "avons"?


Yes. "On" is conjugated just like "il" or "elle".


I was a child=J'étais un enfant//Since I was a child=Depuis que je suis enfant. Why oh why? I am no longer un enfant - the "act" is not continuing so why this conjugation?


I had thoughtfully constructed this sentence... and as I had expected got it marked wrong... however I could not see why and where I had it marked as incorrect so I researched, and typed in my French sentence for translation into English... and … I have received exactly the English sentence where I typed in my French version.. the English sentence that I had to translate into French was what Duo had put into the exercise....so I assume that I was correct using correct tenses in French although they differ from Duo's correction... with all the frustrations one gets from a computer programmed course, I was able to learn so much from Duo that I can now correctly use the language (sometimes) and the various tenses in French although the programmed version does not accept it often enough. Duo has given me the opportunity to do this... although sometimes it has been hard work and frustrating and I did quite some research when I disagreed with the computer program. the comments of the moderators and the discussion group had been a very valuable contribution to my learning as well... so thank you to everyone on Duo.

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