This sentence is awkward. It should be "they had given him A vacation." Vacation in this sentence is not a verb it is an object.
i totally agree and surprised that not too many people noticed this error.
The sentence is not correct in english. One doesn't give vacation but a vacation.
I'm still confused about this, why is it "le" and not "lo" here?
lo is the (masc) pronoun for direct object; le is the pronoun for indirect object. In this sentence, the direct object for the verb give (or, dar) is vacation; "him" is the indirect object, hence le. Hope that helps.
It does, thanks!
I find it helpful to think "They had given vacation to him" so that I remember that it's an indirect object.
why is "vacaciones" used rather than "vacacione"? What makes it plural?
Hi Iris, I think it is because the word holiday in English is always translated as vacaciones in Spanish.
Then why does DL list "vacación" (singular) in the drop-down hints for "vacation"?
That makes as much sense as I can expect, Kept. Thanks for taking the time to respond.
What is wrong with my translation? "ellos le habían dado las vacaciones a él"?
Possibly the use of the word "las". If it was that DL should have highlighted it in your incorrect answer.
Ellos should have been accepted
If you put, "Ellos/Ellas/Ustedes le habían dado vacaciones." then yes.
'They had given him A vacation' - The English does not really make any sense without the 'a'.
"They had given him vacation" is not idiomatic English. It's "a vacation."
this sentence is a non-english sentence
It seems like they keep confusing "le" and "lo".
See Kenn339668's response from a year ago.