"Does the boss have a problem?"
Translation:¿El jefe tiene un problema?
As with most rules, there are exceptions, such as "el problema," "el día"... https://www.thoughtco.com/words-that-break-the-gender-rule-3078133
Ending in "a" generally (though not always,) means a word will be feminine, unless it ends in "a" because the last PAIR of letters are MA, PA, or TA. (This, my Spanish professor called the "ma/pa/ta" rule.) In Spanish, these words are usually Greek in origin, and for whatever reason were arbitrarily decided to be MASCULINE, despite ending in "a". El poema, el mapa, el ... I can't remember the example of the "ta" ending. Ah well.
There's nothing wrong with it; I put "¿Tiene el jefe un problema?" and it said I used the wrong word. I suspect it would have done the same to "¿Tiene la jefa un problema?" and there'd be nothing wrong with that either; I suspect this is what you put and you've come here to complain maybe that it seems it was marking you wrong for using "la jefa" but it wasn't. Probably it was responding to the word order; since it states the "correct" solution is: ¿El jefe tiene un problema?
I suspect it would have accepted: ¿La jefa tiene un problema?
It has nothing to do with "un" which is specified because "problema" is masculine. Ending in "a" generally (though not always,) means a word will be feminine, unless it ends in "a" because the last PAIR of letters are MA, PA, or TA. (This, my Spanish professor called the "ma/pa/ta" rule.) In Spanish, these words are usually Greek in origin, and for whatever reason were arbitrarily decided to be MASCULINE despite ending in "a". Examples include el mapa, and el poema.
This is DIFFERENT from "agua" in which the word IS feminine, but takes the masculine direct article "el" to avoid the running together of the ah sound in la, and the ah sound that begins agua. Or something like that.
No, it should not. (Refer to the ma-pa-ta rule.) You should probably delete this post. It reflects an overly simplistic and incomplete understanding of Spanish noun gender. Not picking on you, but this is simply not how Spanish works.
Not all Spanish nouns ending in -a are feminine, and not all ending in -o are masculine, even if this is GENERALLY true, doesn't mean it's always true, and there are many cases where it's not. There are even cases where a word is feminine but takes the masculine direct article, "el", such as "el agua". (If you use the plural, it's LAS aguas, which is confusing until you know WHY it is the way it is, then it makes sense.)
Mostly, I have found Spanish far more logical and internally consistent than certain OTHER languages I could mention and am typing in right now.