Translation:Where can I buy a map of the city?
I think it is a matter of size: "un plan de Paris" (limited area) vs "une carte de France" (large area).
depending on the context, both could be acceptable:
- you are at your hotel in an unknown city: you ask for "un plan de la ville" because other cities are of no interest to you.
- you have not left yet and you wonder where you can buy "un plan de ville" once you have arrived at destination (in book shops? in railway stations?)
But in any case, both would be understood in French, since your location at the time you ask the question would probably be obvious.
Word for word, yes.
"où est-ce que je peux..." is not a construction that the Académie Française approves, because you are not supposed to use more than 1 interrogative word or locution to start a sentence.
"Où puis-je ?" is the best French you can get. But to be frank with you, in everyday conversation, it is rare!
There is another question in this string where the statement is EXACTLY the same, but "de ville" is NOT accepted; it says "de LA ville" is correct. How can you have it both ways Mr. Owl ? OWLSHIT!:-[
Probably the other sentence could not be constructed with "de ville".
"un plan de ville" is idiomatic
"un quartier de la ville" is not and the article is required (possessive case)
no, actually the other sentence is exactly the same, it asks for the french version of "where can i buy a map of the city". if you answer with "plan de ville" it is not accepted.
you made me laugh, so I made it rain.
ahahahahahahaaha owl poop!! :D :D :D
it's right, but it's long and clunky - I'm sure if you suggested it to the french team you could get it accepted, did you report it? :D
Is "Where can I buy a map of city" accepted? In the above Answer "the" is included whereas no "le" included in this question.
English needs an article before the noun so if there is not one, we must put it there anyway. "Where can I buy a map of THE city?", or closer to the original French, "Where can I buy a city map?" Notice that the original sentence has neither "le" nor "un" but an article is required in English.
Maybe I've lived in Yorkshire too long where 'The' becomes 't' and, here in Sheffield, it just becomes a glottal stop, but it seemed to me that I would say 'a map of town' and 'I'm going to town' and 'I've just come back from town', all without the article. So I got it wrong. Is it too colloquial, do you think?
The use of the glottal stop substituting for a word would certainly be considered colloquial (suited for speech, but not for writing). Interesting! Otherwise, "I'm going to town" and "I've just come back from town" are just what I would say (U.S.). Otherwise, "un plan de ville" would be " a city map" (where "city" is actually a noun being used like an adjective--it's called an attributive noun) or "a map of THE city". Even though the French does not use the definite article here, English would. "Map of town" and "map of city" sound like they need the article "the", IMO, but it's not wrong.
There are so many strange accents around here. They still say 'thee' and 'thou' (I grew up in Norfolk, where everyone sounds like simple farmers and we have a reputation for being inbred, so I am an outsider here in Yorkshire) and in Sheffield they say 'water' with the same 'a' sound as I'd use for 'cat'. In Barnsley, only a few miles away, they pronounce the word 'town' as 'tarn' and 'coal hole' as 'coil oil'. An old guy from 'tarn' that I used to work with tried to teach me Barnsley, and he made me repeat the phrase 'Will thee get thaa boyts aah t coil oil' and such like. I absolutely love it! I can't believe that for a long time the education authorities tried to eliminate regional accents and dialects in the UK. What were they thinking?
Even worse, I met a Dutch guy recently in France (it was possibly the most middle class and cosmopolitan night of my life, sat in Saint-Malo with two French ladies and a Dutch man discussing the world late into the night) who said that we shouldn't try to protect dying languages because there's no point and in the future there will only be three languages left in the world and that will be better. He also used the same logic to say why he doesn't care about if whales go extinct. A nice guy, but with some strange apathy.
Why can they both be used? Why not just de la? Sorry for the questions :(
That's a good question, actually.
In this case, you can consider "a map of the city" can also be "a city map".
In French, two possibilities as well:
noun of noun case: "un plan de ville" - the second noun (ville) gives information on the first noun (plan), like " une feuille de papier" (material), or "un litre de lait" (content)
possessive case: "un plan + de la + ville", constructed exactly like the English "map + of the + city". In that case, it is as if the map belonged to the city, like "la laisse du chien" (the leash of the dog or the dog's leash).
"puis" is exclusively used in formal questions, ie when "je" is placed after the verb, for pronunciation issues: "peux-je" does not sound clearly, so the old French "puis" is used.
Otherwise, "je peux" does not pose any problem in speech.